This thread is similar to the previous thread on 1D:2C sequences in Precision, posted in the last few days !
It also includes some detail on the ambiguous response 1D:1H = ambiguous= either natural OR artificial game force (basic idea borrowed from Viking Club, while skipping the full relay structure).
The reason why details are given is that they can help defining which hands are better suitable into the 1D:2D response.
Thanks a lot to all who will reply !!!
PS: as usual, I'd strive to avoid relay sequences
there fore the same set of assumptions holds:
1) you are playing Precision with 10-12 1NT opening and 2C = 6+ clubs or 5+C+4M.
Therefore 1D can be
- 13-15 hcp (semi)balanced
- 54-55-45 in the minors, <16 hcp
- 5D + 4M, <16 hcp
- single suiter in diamonds, <16 hcp
- 4441 (cannot be short in diamonds), <16 hcp.
2) The set of responses to 1D opening is
- 1H = AMBIGUOUS, EITHER natural oR game forcing; opener bids naturally, raising Hearts with any 4 card support or with 3 card support and a singleton (to avoid getting in trouble when responder is weak and opener is 54 in minors; in that case the weak responder has a difficult choice when opener rebids 2C)
After 1D:1H:2H,
a )2S is relay denying hearts; opener bids: -2NT = 4432 with 4 H; 3C= 3 card raise with longer clubs; 3D = 3 card raise with longer diams; 3H = 5+d and 4 H; 3S = 4441; 3NT = 4333
b ) 3C is a relay promising hearts; opener bids: 3D = 3 card raise with a singleton; 3H = 5+ D and 4H; 3S = 4 card raise + singleton; 3NT = 4432/4333
c) 2NT is natural invitational with 4 H
d) 3D/3H should be game tries, I have not defined them yet, SUGGESTIONS WELCOME !!
e) 3NT offers choice of games with 4 card H , pard pass or correct
After 1D:1H, 1S cannot be balanced, and guarantees 5diamonds + spades e.g. a balanced opener will rebid NT even holding spades (or 4441 H singleton- or should this better bid 1S so that 1S is either 5+D and spades or 4441 ?).
On the sequences 1D:1H:1S or 1D:1H:1NT, the XYZ convention is on:
-2C= any invitational hand (hearts are real then) or eak with diamonds; opener is forced to bid 2D then responder passes if weak with diams, or invites naturally;
-2D = any normal opening hand (or balanced slammish)
-Minimum rebids or raise of opener are signoffs
- 3C is signoff in clubs (only way to play in C, since 2C is artificial)
- all jumps or jump raises are picture jumps for slammish hands, with concentrated values
-----------------------------------------------
Ok, the description of the ambiguous 1H (basic idea taken from the Viking Club, avoiding the full relay of course) was long, but it may be needed to discriminate the hands that can be responded 2D (some of them may fall within the 1H response).
Other responses to 1D are fairly standard:
1S= natural, 1 round force, 4+ spades
1NT= 8-10 bal, nat
2C= invitational +, 5+ cards (may have a side major only if GF)
2D = ???
2H/S= strong Jumpshift
2NT = 11-12, natural invitational
3C= invitational one suited in clubs,
3D = preemptive
3H/S= splinter
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Finally we come to the subject of this post:
What is your suggestion for the type of hands to be included in 1D:2D ?
Which of the following ?
1) invitational with 5 diamonds, no major
2) GF hand 5+ diams, 4M
3) slammish hands, 5+ diams, no major
4) slammish hands, 5+ diams, 4M
Then the questions become:
what does opener bid after 1D:2D ?
The problems are similar to the sequence 1D:2C:
1) Opener is not concerned of showing a reverse, but still he must be aware that the auction is not a game force, so some of his bids may be passed by a minimum responder.
2) Should opener show a side major independently from shape and independently from being max or min ?
In other words, after 1D:2D:2♥/♠,
- 2a ) should responder think that the auction is game force even if he holds a minimum invitational hand ?
- 2b ) should responder assume that opener is 5D+4M or can opener still e balanced with the major ?
3) this is closely related to point 2). After 1D:2D Should OPENER with a max balanced hand jump to 3NT (potentially preempting partner looking for a slam), and with a min balanced bid 2NT ? Do these bids deny interest in the majors ?
-----------------------------------
Example hands (basically the same as in the previous post)
North is always dealer
After 1D:2D
Hand 1
North ♠ KQ72 ♥ AKJ9 ♦ 9 3 ♣ 9 7 3
South ♠ 9 4 ♥ Q 8 6 ♦ A Q 8 5 4 ♣ A K 10
1D:2D
should responder bid 2D or use 1H as artificial GF ?
If 2D is correct, should North bid 2NT or 2M (which major in that case ? I suppose hearts)
---------------------
Hand 2
North ♠ AK72 ♥ AKJ9 ♦ 9 3 ♣ 9 7 3
South ♠ 9 4 ♥ T 8 6 ♦ A K 8 5 4 ♣ A K 10
1D:2D:?
Now do you bid the major or NT ? If you bid NT, how many ? If you bid 3NT, pard can still have a hand that could push towards slam if u leave him room to investigate at the 3 level, but that will be reluctanto to do so if u jump to 3NT. Of course if he has a battleship or a freak hand, he will go on even after 3NT, but North's hand is so good here that closing to 3NT may miss a slam even if South has a decently good opening hand.
If you bid 2NT instead, pard will pass with a minimum invitational hand.
---------------------
Hand 3
North ♠ 5432 ♥ AQJ9 ♦ J7 ♣ KQJ
South ♠ Qx ♥ 865 ♦ AKQ854 ♣ xxx
1D:2D:?
Should North bid 2NT (showing a minimum) even with an empty spade suit ?
Or bid hearts ? How does that fit with the answers you gave to the previous questions ?

Help
