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How to bid this correctly?

#1 User is offline   DWM 

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Posted 2009-November-29, 04:03



How do you bit this hand playing a strong club with 1D reply = 0-7 points. If the bid is available West will bid 1/2S in the second round.
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#2 User is offline   mr1303 

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Posted 2009-November-29, 04:23

A few options here.

1) When I played strong club seriously I had the agreement not to open 1D with primary diamonds unless I had a GF in my own hand.

Therefore this sequence seems plausible.

1D (1S) 3D
3H 3S
4D P/5D depending on what mood responder is in.

2) If I have to open this 1C, then:

1C (1S) X
2D 3D
3H 3S
4D P/5D depending ....

I do feel I'm going to be in 5D off 1 a fairly high percentage of the time here.
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#3 User is offline   DWM 

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Posted 2009-November-29, 05:38

West passed the 1C bid and only came in on the second round.
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#4 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2009-November-29, 07:12

If you open this hand 1 you better describe it as balanced. 1NT gives more room to p than 2.

1-1
1NT-(2)-3
3-4
5

3is invitational (a weak hand either passes or bid 2NT lebensohl).

3 asks for help in that suit. I think it doesn't show half a stopper here but of course it would be great if it did. Alternatively S could bid 3. That might show a 5-card to some, though, if you routinely rebid 1NT with a 5-card major. I don't think I would normally do that, though. So 3 is fine too, then responder could ask for half a stop with 3.

4 is natural, although S would generally pass without a diamond fit, clubs could still play better.
The world would be such a happy place, if only everyone played Acol :) --- TramTicket
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