1♥ 1♠
1NT 2♣
2NT 3♠
?
I've already shown 2 spades, haven't I? Does that mean this is non-forcing, just an improved contract over 2NT?
Also, was my bidding correct with:
♠62
♥QJ754
♦AKQ
♣Q32
?
Page 1 of 1
NMF forcing or not?
#1
Posted 2009-March-30, 17:31
Still decidedly intermediate - don't take my guesses as authoritative.
"gwnn" said:
rule number 1 in efficient forum reading:
hanp does not always mean literally what he writes.
hanp does not always mean literally what he writes.
#2
Posted 2009-March-30, 17:38
This is showing a GF with 6♠. With your hand I would have bid 4♠, because 3♠ is essentially a COG.
Edit: I cue 4♦ actually... This shows a doubleton ♠.
Edit: I cue 4♦ actually... This shows a doubleton ♠.
Yay for the "Ignored Users" feature!
#3
Posted 2009-March-30, 17:46
Not only is it forcing, but it may be looking for slam.
Hi y'all!
Winner - BBO Challenge bracket #6 - February, 2017.
Winner - BBO Challenge bracket #6 - February, 2017.
#4
Posted 2009-March-30, 17:52
Phil, on Mar 30 2009, 06:46 PM, said:
Not only is it forcing, but it may be looking for slam.
True, and now that I look at it, I will cue 4♦.
Yay for the "Ignored Users" feature!
#5
Posted 2009-March-30, 18:29
ANY 3 level bid is forcing after nmf. Easy rule. This includes:
1D 1S
1N 2C
2S 3S
1D 1S
1N 2C
2S 3S
New website: http://www.justinlall.com
#6
Posted 2009-March-31, 01:07
Hi,
Since 3S in the seq.
1H - 1S
1NT - 3S
would be nonforcing (*) for most players, the seq.
1H - 1S
1NT - 2C
2NT - 3S
is the way to create game forcing sitiuation, if responder holds
6 spades.
Since the 1NT opener promised already 2 spades, 3S spades
also sets the trump suit and requests partner to start a cue
bidding seq. => 4D.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
(*) If you play 3S in the seq.
1H - 1S
1NT - 3S
as forcing, which is an option, if you happen to play weak jump shifts
by responder, than it may make sense to play 3S in the 2nd auction
as non forcing, the alternative being as a choice of contract.
With kind regards
Marlowe
Since 3S in the seq.
1H - 1S
1NT - 3S
would be nonforcing (*) for most players, the seq.
1H - 1S
1NT - 2C
2NT - 3S
is the way to create game forcing sitiuation, if responder holds
6 spades.
Since the 1NT opener promised already 2 spades, 3S spades
also sets the trump suit and requests partner to start a cue
bidding seq. => 4D.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
(*) If you play 3S in the seq.
1H - 1S
1NT - 3S
as forcing, which is an option, if you happen to play weak jump shifts
by responder, than it may make sense to play 3S in the 2nd auction
as non forcing, the alternative being as a choice of contract.
With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
#7
Posted 2009-March-31, 07:07
Thanks. That makes a ton of sense.
V
V
Still decidedly intermediate - don't take my guesses as authoritative.
"gwnn" said:
rule number 1 in efficient forum reading:
hanp does not always mean literally what he writes.
hanp does not always mean literally what he writes.
Page 1 of 1

Help
