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Bidding plan with 2-2-5-4

#1 User is offline   EricK 

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Posted 2009-March-17, 16:31

When you have a 2-2-5-4 hand, how often do you open 1NT (if within range) or rebid 1NT after 1 - 1M (again, if within range)? What about opening 2NT or rebidding 2NT after 1 - 1M?

My feeling is that it generally works out better than bidding then (unless your high cards are very concentrated in the minors). But once you have an idea like this, it's easy for confirmation bias to take over and prevent you from thinking disinterestedly about it.
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#2 User is offline   rogerclee 

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Posted 2009-March-17, 16:57

I usually open 1NT if I'm in range with 2254, I think it's important to preempt their ability to compete in a major. However if both of my major holdings were weak I would open 1.

If I have a minimum I will usually rebid 2 unless my holding in the other major is very good. Again, this is the same for 2N rebids; I will usually bid 3 unless my holding in the other major is very good or I judge the hand to be a little light or think I need to declare, in which case I will bid 2N.
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#3 User is offline   hackenbush 

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Posted 2009-March-17, 17:02

In other words, always rebid NT at the cleegiates.
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#4 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2009-March-17, 21:12

I don't ever like a 'preemptive' 1N with bad doubletons unless the colors are good.

I would be hard pressed to want to rebid 1N with 2254 unless my doubleton in the off major was really great and my clubs shabby.

1 - 1x - 2 is the 'normal' way to bid this pattern.
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#5 User is offline   hanp 

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Posted 2009-March-17, 21:36

Depends on the honors, like Phil said. Usually I will rebid 2C.
and the result can be plotted on a graph.
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#6 User is offline   CSGibson 

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Posted 2009-March-18, 00:44

I agree with Roger's criteria for deciding when bidding NT is appropriate.
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#7 User is offline   Rossoneri 

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Posted 2009-March-18, 05:07

Never bidding 1NT with 2 doubletons if I am playing a weak NT with some escape system.

For strong NT, I would want the doubletons to be at least Ax or Kx.
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#8 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2009-March-18, 05:33

I prefer to bid both minors if the doubletons are wimpish.
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#9 User is offline   Flameous 

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Posted 2009-March-18, 07:15

At MP, almost always open /rebid 1NT.

At Imps only when my major holdings look like it.
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#10 User is offline   ASkolnick 

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Posted 2009-March-18, 07:51

I have gotten very good results playing a weak NT and opening 2-2-5-4 or 2-2-4-5 hands.

A few things usually happen:

1) You get to play in 1N and usually have enough tricks, if they don't take there's first.
2) Your minus is much less than the majors divided 4-4 or 4-5 that you preempted.

Of course, like Roger, if my hand is concentrated and suit oriented, I will open 1D.
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#11 User is offline   kgr 

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Posted 2009-March-18, 11:51

I play that 1D-1M-2C is forcing and therefor with a min hand I will bid 1NT most of the time.
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#12 User is offline   ASkolnick 

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Posted 2009-March-18, 12:41

Part of the reason I do as well, is the same reason as kgr.
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#13 User is offline   fromageGB 

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Posted 2009-March-18, 15:02

This is the sort of question I read the forums for. With my partners we have agreed without proper consideration that we do not open 1NT with 2 doubletons, so would open a minor and rebid 1NT over a major. However, that always seems to guarantee a lead of the other major.

I can't see anything wrong with opening 1NT except that partner with both 5 card majors will insist on playing in a 5/2 fit. A rare occasion. Any other major holding and you are no worse off.

Worth discussing.
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#14 User is offline   kenrexford 

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Posted 2009-March-18, 15:27

FWIW, this problem is one of the reasons why I have played that a 2 opening shows both minors and 14-16 HCP (intermediate). The range is lower because 5-4 has greater playing strength. (If I were to open 1NT, I would have 14-16 with this much playing strength.) This also solvces the same problem when 1354/3154, or 5-5 minors, or 4-5 minors, etc.
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#15 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2009-March-18, 15:29

kenrexford, on Mar 18 2009, 04:27 PM, said:

FWIW, this problem is one of the reasons why I have played that a 2 opening shows both minors and 14-16 HCP (intermediate). The range is lower because 5-4 has greater playing strength. (If I were to open 1NT, I would have 14-16 with this much playing strength.) This also solvces the same problem when 1354/3154, or 5-5 minors, or 4-5 minors, etc.

How does that solve the problem of when you belong in 1NT or 2? Or of partner not knowing which minor is longer?
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#16 User is online   mike777 

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Posted 2009-March-18, 15:55

I always open 1nt if within range but then I open 1nt with many other offshapes. Perhaps the only exception is with a 5 card major and weak doubleton.

Given my one bids are such a wide range(balanced 11's and shapely 10's opened very often), I need to pull out these good hands with 1nt or Mexican 2d. Granted this really makes the minor suits an ignored stepchild.


btw this style hints to responder I have a minimum hand(11-13) or otoh if I have a rare maximum then I have a stiff or void if 14+.
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