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Now what?

#1 User is offline   ghow 

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Posted 2009-February-22, 10:28

Scoring: IMP

You decide to open one club (precision) & it goes
1♣ (2♦)2n(p)
3♠ (p) 3n (p)
?
Partner's 2nt was natural 8-10 or 14+ hcp w/♦stop
What now?

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#2 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2009-February-22, 10:31

4♠ is enough, p can make a move if he wants.
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#3 User is offline   matmat 

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Posted 2009-February-22, 10:54

did the 3N rebid now restrict their hand to 8-10?
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#4 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2009-February-22, 12:06

4♠
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#5 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2009-February-22, 19:16

I don't know much about precision, but not opening in spades this hand looks like a big mistake.

At MP you can get fun and pass, but I beleive this is a clear 4♠ rebid, partner is there for something.
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#6 User is offline   mtvesuvius 

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Posted 2009-February-22, 19:21

4♠... Which is plenty, just think about all the wasted red cards partner could have.
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#7 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2009-February-22, 19:31

Wow the 4♠ bids are shocking me. I believe partner will move 0.00% of the time over that (I believe 3NT has to promise 8-10), he has limited his hand and you have placed the contract. His 3NT bid didn't say he was bad for slam, it simply denied three spades. I would never assume 3♠ then 4♠ is a slam try based on not bidding 4♠ a round earlier, because I might have been worth a slam try only opposite a fit and because the split range for responder makes the situation unclear. Anyway I would bid 4♦ now which I think is just a slam try for spades. I guess the only justification I can see for the previous answers is thinking 3♠ then 4♠ is a slam try, which is fine if that's the agreement.
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#8 User is offline   Codo 

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Posted 2009-February-23, 04:30

I use the shoking 4 ♠ bid to show a hand with not much Slam interesst and long spades- not the worst describtion after I had opened 1 Club.
Kind Regards

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More system is not the answer...
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