I open a club, partner responds a spade, I rebid 1NT and now LHO comes in with 2D. It turned out that he did this on four diamonds to the 9, apparently because he was tired of passing, but I got to thinking later that maybe this should be a hand with long diamonds and four hearts. On the first round he worries that bidding 1D over 1C will lose the hearts so he waits and comes in later trusting partner will work it out. I never heard of this but it doesn't sound completely crazy. Any comment?
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whatsit? beats me
#2
Posted 2009-February-16, 07:56
Not a good idea.
Passing risks, that you are loosing the lead directing
value of a diamond overcall.
Assuming responder is a passed hand, 2D would be
come sort of prebal.
With kind regards
Marlowe
Passing risks, that you are loosing the lead directing
value of a diamond overcall.
Assuming responder is a passed hand, 2D would be
come sort of prebal.
With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
#3
Posted 2009-February-16, 08:06
Agree with Ken. I would still bid 1♦ initially with decent diamonds and/or overall values, but something like
(void)
AJxx
Jxxxxx
xxx
would be ok for a delayed 2♦. With diamonds only I would bid 2♦ directly, or pass throughout.
An alternative interpretation may be 5-5 minors, again with lousy diamonds.
(void)
AJxx
Jxxxxx
xxx
would be ok for a delayed 2♦. With diamonds only I would bid 2♦ directly, or pass throughout.
An alternative interpretation may be 5-5 minors, again with lousy diamonds.
The world would be such a happy place, if only everyone played Acol :) --- TramTicket
#5
Posted 2009-February-16, 08:21
helene_t, on Feb 16 2009, 03:06 PM, said:
An alternative interpretation may be 5-5 minors, again with lousy diamonds.
This is what I would be expecting. Actually 5♦-6♣ would be more like it.
#6
Posted 2009-February-16, 08:25
Marlowe (Phil?) (Helene answered while I was typing this)
I think I agree that it is not a good idea. But prebalance or not it is hard for me to imagine a hand that would bid 2D directly over the 1NT rebid but not 1D over 1C if all it has to offer was diamonds. So I started thinking about what if anything would prompt such an action.
In this particular case my 1C opening was third had so it was P P 1C P 1S P 1N 2D but I don't think that changes the issue with 2D. Strictly as a diamond bid it seems impossible to me.
Anyway, it all worked out fine for us. Partner bid hearts over 2D, I have hearts, the opening lead was the Ace of Ds with me tabling KQx. But later I was thinking maybe I should have expected a 4-1 heart split because of the 2D bid. Actually the 2D bidder held QJ tight in hearts.
But thanks for your thoughts. The auction seemed odd and was odd. That may be explanation enough.
Helene
The sort of hand you offer is all that makes any sense to me. I don't think I would do it, but it makes some sort of sense.
I think I agree that it is not a good idea. But prebalance or not it is hard for me to imagine a hand that would bid 2D directly over the 1NT rebid but not 1D over 1C if all it has to offer was diamonds. So I started thinking about what if anything would prompt such an action.
In this particular case my 1C opening was third had so it was P P 1C P 1S P 1N 2D but I don't think that changes the issue with 2D. Strictly as a diamond bid it seems impossible to me.
Anyway, it all worked out fine for us. Partner bid hearts over 2D, I have hearts, the opening lead was the Ace of Ds with me tabling KQx. But later I was thinking maybe I should have expected a 4-1 heart split because of the 2D bid. Actually the 2D bidder held QJ tight in hearts.
But thanks for your thoughts. The auction seemed odd and was odd. That may be explanation enough.
Helene
The sort of hand you offer is all that makes any sense to me. I don't think I would do it, but it makes some sort of sense.
Ken
#7
Posted 2009-February-16, 08:28
Now I see the minor two suiter explanation. LHO had five clubs alright, and 9xxx certainly qualifies as lousy diamonds.
Ken
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