jdonn, on Feb 10 2009, 04:05 PM, said:
mikeh, on Feb 10 2009, 04:00 PM, said:
(Reitterating that I would have responded 1♠ on the actual hand, not 1♥)
It also works when opener rebids his minor. For example 1363 or 1462, 1♦ 1♠ 2♦ 2♥ is forcing and could get you very high with no fit if opener has the wrong shape. 1♦ 1♥ 2♥ is much nicer. So I think it has more upside than you give credit for.
While 1♠ then 2♥ is usually played as forcing (after a 2♦ rebid), one doesn't need to do so, if one is prepared, for example, to play 2N as forcing... but that is a digression and not really responsive since it implies specialized and unorthodox treatments.
However, altho 2♥ is forcing, I don't think that it creates a gf.. thus, responder can pass 2♠ or 3♣, and can bid a non-forcing 3♥ over 2N.. so while the hand is minimum, if opener rebid 2♦, I don't see a lot of problems with 1♠ then 2♥ with this hand... please... note... I said a 'lot' of problems.. I am not saying that this treatment is free of all problems.. but it is surely less problematic than responding 1♥

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