qwery_hi, on Jan 2 2009, 11:17 AM, said:
jdonn, on Jan 2 2009, 11:03 AM, said:
I think 4♦ is pretty obvious (or at least raising diamonds somehow, so if you think 4♣ is a cuebid...) The one thing I think is clearly wrong (other than 3NT) is 3♠ with the intention of passing 3NT if partner bids it. If partner has a spade stopper, and wants to play 3NT opposite a diamond fit, he would have bid 3NT last round (or 2NT - 3NT depending on leb) instead of bidding diamonds.
After reading this post, I am convinced that 4
♦ is correct for the reasons mentioned. Since I aspire to be an expert some day, the question before me is this - is it standard expert practice to bid 3NT (with a stopper) even when a diamond slam may be in the offing if partner has say Kxx of diamonds?
Edit - I don't think I was very clear in the question I was asking. It was motivated by the sequences in which we open 1NT, responder transfers to diamonds and then bids 3NT. I was wondering what the expert practice is to do with such a hand in this case.
Since I edited my post, I'm following up with a new post along the same lines.
Consider a hand where opposite a 15-17 NT, you would transfer to diamonds and then bid 3NT. (Humor me if you don't play there methods)
Lets say you hold such a hand and a spade stopper. If you bid 3
♦, assuming that partner doesn't have a stop, aren't you putting partner in a pickle if he doesn't have diamond support?
Edit - I think I get it now - 3
♠ is only right if you don't have diamond support. Thanks all.
Further edit - by "right" I mean 'right for me'

.. no as frances said, there is no single "right".
Alle Menschen werden bruder.
Where were you while we were getting high?
1NT 2♠ 3♦ P
?