[Poky]

IMP. All love.

♠Axx
♥KTx
♦QJTx
♣xxx

1♣ Dbl pass ??

What do you bid and why?
Give votes for all the choices from the poll.

[rogerclee]

2♦ seems highly obvious to me.

[han]

Yep, to me too.

[pclayton]

I♦ for me.

The bidding isn't over and I'm not at all sure that I want to play diamonds here. Furthermore, RHO's pass is a little worrisome. It tells me that either pard has a flat 13 or 14, or that pard might be slightly offshape - 4=4=2=3 for instance.

I will have an easy double of anything that they bid next.

Give me a 5th diamond, and then its an 'easy 2♦ bid.

[ArtK78]

It may be a matter of style.

Anyone who has to jump to show a good hand is going to bid 2♦ on these cards.

Anyone who needs a 5 card suit to jump is going to find some other bid, whether it be 1♦, 2♣ or something more creative (1NT or 2NT from the stoppers are for children school?).

[mike777]

yes I will try 1nt......

[kenrexford]

herbertherbertherbertherbert.

I just don't get why 1♣-X-P-? is not universally enhanced by use of a Herbert Negative 1♦, or 2♣(precision)-X-P-2♦, or 3♣(not Schenken)-X-P-3♦.

[jdonn]

kenrexford, on Oct 15 2008, 10:21 PM, said:

herbertherbertherbertherbert.

I just don't get why 1♣-X-P-? is not universally enhanced by use of a Herbert Negative 1♦, or 2♣(precision)-X-P-2♦, or 3♣(not Schenken)-X-P-3♦.

What does that have to do with the given hand? So instead of bidding 2♦ showing values, you get to bid..... 2♦ showing values!

[suokko]

bad shape and no good club stopper makes game very unlikely. I wouldn't think missing any if I bid 1♦. We will make 3NT only if partner has real extras because there won't be double club stopper (We need 9 running tricks after club lead).

I think 5♦ or 4M is a lot more likely game and both is going to be bid after 1♦. My partner with 5+M will bid that next and I can show good hand after that. If 5♦ is the right contract then my partner will bid 2♦ next to show extras.

Someone might think missing slam is possible but our shape is realy bad for slam zone. It should be subtracted a bit more for slams. (Partner needs nearly a Q extras to cover one of 3-3 majors instead if we had 2-3)

[rogerclee]

pclayton, on Oct 15 2008, 02:09 PM, said:

Furthermore, RHO's pass is a little worrisome. It tells me that either pard has a flat 13 or 14, or that pard might be slightly offshape - 4=4=2=3 for instance.

Ok, I'll bite. Why does RHOs pass imply that partner has one of these hands? It is certainly possible that RHO just has no values (since LHO has opened, partner has Xed, and we have 10 points!) and 4 or less clubs. Clubs can easily be 5 on my left, 4 on my right, or 6 on my left, 3 on my right, or 7 on my left... Partner can also have a doubleton club. Partner might also just have a balanced fifteen that was not good enough to overcall 1N with that is going to pass a 1D bid. It is also possible RHO just decided to pass with 5332 and no points.

Also the statement "the auction is not over" has not been a reasonable bridge argument since Al Roth was a leading player unless you are trying something tactical. Since we have no idea where we want to play, our best bet is to describe our hand as well as possible rather than to try and mastermind and figure out what to do later. I would say that jumping with 10 points which is about what our jump shows does the best job of describing our hand and is not the least bit misdescriptive at all, and since it is such a good description of our hand will get us to our best contract very often. Even if 1D will never be passed out which is a dubious assertation, it doesn't make 1D the best bid.

I'm not sure what the concern is by bidding 2D. If it goes all pass we should be in a reasonable partscore. If partner bids over it we should get to our best game. If partner has any of the hands you fear he has (balanced 13 or 14, or 4423) then he should pass 2D and we are in a fine spot (yes the 4-2 should play fine when we have so many HCP).

I think you have the habit of reading too much into things that don't necessarily exist early in the auction rather than trying to just make the best descriptive bid possible. Just my opinion.

[P_Marlowe]

Not sure that this is a question for the A/E section.

1D - declares, that I am broke.
Given that I have 10HCP, a bit pessimistic, but the
financial crisis showed us, that certain values were
only paper values ....

2D - showes 4 diamonds 8-10.

1NT - Should promise a stopper in club.

2C - should show the majors, at least it asks partner
to bid his better major, since I have no 4 card
major ...

3C - forces to game, a little bit much with 10 vs. a
simple t/o ...

What of the above fits?

With kind regards
Marlowe

PS: My vote goes for 2D.

[Cascade]

1 bid 1♦

[Codo]

I read the book where 2 Diamonds promise 8-10 HCPS and 4 Diamonds, so this is a wtp.

[kenrexford]

jdonn, on Oct 16 2008, 12:13 AM, said:

kenrexford, on Oct 15 2008, 10:21 PM, said:

herbertherbertherbertherbert.

I just don't get why 1♣-X-P-? is not universally enhanced by use of a Herbert Negative 1♦, or 2♣(precision)-X-P-2♦, or 3♣(not Schenken)-X-P-3♦.

What does that have to do with the given hand? So instead of bidding 2♦ showing values, you get to bid..... 2♦ showing values!

Actually, using normal herbert, good point.

But, I like to play it a little different:

1♦ = bust OR diamond semi-positive+
1♥ = semi-positive, natural
1♠ = semi-positive, natural
1NT = normal
2♣ = normal
2♦ = diamond non-positive

After 1♦, if partner rebids 1♥ (the relay), I am expected, with th weak hand, to pass or correct to 1♠, or possibly 1NT. However, I can also bid 2♣ or
2♦ with diamond hands.

[655321]

2♦.

If my diamonds were Q432 I would bid 1♦, but these good diamonds should make even a worst case 4-2 fit playable.

[dake50]

Power double with xfers on(joker nee Herbert lowest xfer). 1S->xfer to C asks stop or what else.

[Flame]

I like 1NT, it shows the value and shape of the hand and i never have a problem bidding 1NT without stopper in my LHO suit.