Posted 2008-September-21, 14:48
The base question of whether 4NT is asking after 4♦ is RKCB seems strange to even ask. How can you have the agreement to use 1-2-4 as RKCB without discussion of what happens after an answer? I usually play that game+1 is the K-ask, myself.
As for the sequence, I'm real curious about what happened between 2♦ and 4♦. There's a whole lot of space there, and neither partner should want to bid RKCB except as a last resort.
As an aside, I like my sequence with a 2♦ opening (strong with 4+ spades):
O: 2♦ (strong, 4+ spades)
R: 2♥ (artificial, no spade fit, no positive suit)
O: 3♦ (4♠/5+♦)
R: 3♠ (diamond fit)
O: 3NT (I already showed a huge hand)
R: 4♣ (club control, slammish)
O: 4♦ (two top diamonds)
R: 4♠ (one of top three spades, no heart control)
At this point, Opener can already count four diamonds, two hearts, two clubs, and three spades, for 11 tricks, with double control everywhere, and that's opposite no diamond Ace, the club King, and just the spade Queen. Since he is willing to commit to slam, might as well seek the grand...
O: 5♣ (club control)
R: 5♥ (enough, plus third-round heart control)
O: 6♣ (not two top spades, first-round club control)
R: 6NT (not one of the top two spades)
That works.
"Gibberish in, gibberish out. A trial judge, three sets of lawyers, and now three appellate judges cannot agree on what this law means. And we ask police officers, prosecutors, defense lawyers, and citizens to enforce or abide by it? The legislature continues to write unreadable statutes. Gibberish should not be enforced as law."
-P.J. Painter.