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tourney hand

#1 User is offline   onoway 

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Posted 2008-September-02, 12:57

Scoring: IMP

what is the right way to bid this? Checking the traveller, bids were all over the place.
If bidding goes P 2 P then what? This was in a BIL tourney so 2NT asking for a feature didn't work very well (got left in it for -1 on a lead)

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#2 User is offline   pclayton 

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Posted 2008-September-02, 13:15

3 - 4 - pass.

I think the West hand has too much for stuff for a weak 2.

I can't objectively bid these cards to slam.
"Phil" on BBO
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#3 User is offline   vuroth 

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Posted 2008-September-02, 14:03

I think I remember this hand.

At very least, I remember seeing a weak 2 - 2NT - pass lately, and wincing. :(

V
Still decidedly intermediate - don't take my guesses as authoritative.

"gwnn" said:

rule number 1 in efficient forum reading:
hanp does not always mean literally what he writes.
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#4 User is offline   ASkolnick 

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Posted 2008-September-02, 14:20

OK. Regardless of if you are playing feature.

2S-2N-
4D (I am 6-5 with a self sufficient suit)-4N
6D (1 with a void)-P
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#5 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2008-September-02, 15:48

ASkolnick, on Sep 2 2008, 03:20 PM, said:

OK. Regardless of if you are playing feature.

2S-2N-
4D (I am 6-5 with a self sufficient suit)-4N
6D (1 with a void)-P

And if east had x AKQxxx KQJTx x, how would the bidding be any different? That is aside from the fact that west has way too much playing strength to open 2.

This is simply too hard of a slam to bid with any realistic auction, IMO. To get close, west would have to open 1, and when east responds in hearts then west will never show that void.
Please let me know about any questions or interest or bug reports about GIB.
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#6 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2008-September-02, 16:21

I get to 5d...but not 6....west never shows void.
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#7 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2008-September-02, 17:03

I think the west hand has far too much potential to open 2S.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#8 User is offline   Lobowolf 

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Posted 2008-September-02, 17:18

FWIW, I'm bidding 3 with the east hand over 2. Still not getting there. In addition to the hoped-for ace of spades (no guarantee), the weak-2 bidder has to cover another first round control. But if someone's going to go nuts, it might as well happen over:

2-3
4


Other than that, best chance is East opens out of turn and South accepts it.
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#9 User is offline   skjaeran 

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Posted 2008-September-03, 00:53

The west hand is not a 2 opener to me, even playing very constructive weak twos. It's either a 1 (preferrably) or a 3 opener.

Even after 1 it's hard to see any sane auction getting to 6, without some real gambling and luck involved.

The only possibility is:
1 - 2
2 - 3
4
Where 4 shows a void on the way to 5. I don't think many will have an explicit agreement here, and without it, you just can't pull that trick.
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Harald
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#10 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2008-September-04, 02:23

How about:

1-2
2-3
4-4
4-5
6

4, 4 and 5 were cue-bids. I'm not sure about the 6 bid.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#11 User is online   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2008-September-04, 02:57

Hi,

I may pass the West hand, the hand is way too strong
for a weak two, ... and to open 3S, even for such a
opening the hand is quite strong, even if you take the
vulnerability into account, and you may go heavily against
the field.
The hand is too weak to open 1S (at least for us) or simply
say the hand is not suitable for an 1S opening.

Assuming the opponents dont come in, which is not likely
with their actual holding, the bidding may go

Pass .. - 1H
1S ..... - 3D (1)
4D (2) - .... (3)

(1) I think, even I would force to game, with this one
(2) max. hand, slam interst
(3) soemhow you will reach 6D

The decision to pass would have been a succesful decision
this time, but it can backfire.
The only safety is, that you hold the spades, and that you
always can come in later.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#12 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2008-September-04, 03:10

I like 3-4. Not sure if we should pass then.
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#13 User is offline   nige1 

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Posted 2008-September-18, 05:00

onoway, on Sep 2 2008, 01:57 PM, said:

Dealer: South
Vul: E/W
Scoring: IMP
543
A654
7
AJT72
AKQ762
 
96432
43
J
KQJT92
AKQJ5
5
T98
873
T8
KQ986
what is the right way to bid this? Checking the traveller,  bids were all over the place.
If bidding goes P  2  P then what? This was in a BIL tourney so 2NT asking for a feature didn't work very well  (got left in it for -1 on a lead)
 

IMO The West hand is worth a 1 opener but I still don't see how to bid the slam. At pairs, you would be happy to play in 4, but the bidding is more likely to go...
1-2
2-3
4-4N
5-P
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#14 User is offline   ArtK78 

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Posted 2008-September-18, 11:16

If this is a matchpoint event, then diamonds are never in the picture.

Over a 2 opening, I would bid 4. And if the auction got complicated, West should just bid 4.

Except for 6, either major suit game should beat or tie any pair in diamonds.

At IMPs, I can understand getting to 5, although game in either major still makes a lot of sense. It is unlikely that any pair would bid the slam except by accident.
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#15 User is offline   Mosene 

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Posted 2008-September-19, 12:21

ZAR says this is a 1 spade opener. so...

1 - 2
2 - 3
5? - 6?

Is the leap to 5 diamonds warranted? Not sure. I would think East has 4 or more diamonds a very large % of the time. You have more than an opening (ZAR) hand after finding the diamond fit. So I think 5 diamonds is quite reasonable and will make a good % of the time. Once West bids 5, I think East is wimpy to not bid 6.
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