[CSGibson]

Scoring: IMP

Opponents passing throughout.
1♣-1♦,
1♥-1♠*,
2♠-2N,
3♣-4♣,
5♣-?

---

playing 2/1, 1♠ is 4th suit forcing to game, the rest of the sequence is natural. Has South bid accurately at this point in your opinion? Bump to 6 clubs?

[Rossoneri]

Pass.

[mike777]

CSGibson, on Aug 17 2008, 10:32 PM, said:

Scoring: IMP

Opponents passing throughout.
1♣-1♦,
1♥-1♠*,
2♠-2N,
3♣-4♣,
5♣-?

---

playing 2/1, 1♠ is 4th suit forcing to game, the rest of the sequence is natural.  Has South bid accurately at this point in your opinion?  Bump to 6 clubs?

Prefer to bid 4d kickback, if we play that, rkc for clubs over three clubs if that is an option. Opener should just respond keycards and not show any void as void may not be useful. I hope partner does not open ten hcp 3 suited hands when Vul.

If not I just pass now.

[rogerclee]

6♣, agree with the previous bidding.

[EricK]

I'm wondering whether 4♣ by you was necessary to show support. By opener's 4th bid, he has shown (I presume) 4-4-0-5 and you have shown (I presume) a balanced hand with 4+♦ and no 4 card major. Are bids below 3NT looking for a 4-3 major fit, or are they cue-bids with ♣ agreed. In particular, what would a 3♦ bid by you now show?

[CSGibson]

EricK, on Aug 18 2008, 12:45 AM, said:

I'm wondering whether 4♣ by you was necessary to show support. By opener's 4th bid, he has shown (I presume) 4-4-0-5 and you have shown (I presume) a balanced hand with 4+♦ and no 4 card major. Are bids below 3NT looking for a 4-3 major fit, or are they cue-bids with ♣ agreed. In particular, what would a 3♦ bid by you now show?

3 diamonds by me would be a transfer to 3N in this auction. Not by agreement, but in all practicality.

[jdonn]

I would bid 6♣, the range of hands that don't make slam good seems extremely small to me, or even nonexistant for players who don't open quite light. And even opposite those hands slam is probably not worse than a 3-3 or something like that.

[EricK]

CSGibson, on Aug 18 2008, 01:55 PM, said:

EricK, on Aug 18 2008, 12:45 AM, said:

I'm wondering whether 4♣ by you was necessary to show support. By opener's 4th bid, he has shown (I presume) 4-4-0-5 and you have shown (I presume) a balanced hand with 4+♦ and no 4 card major. Are bids below 3NT looking for a 4-3 major fit, or are they cue-bids with ♣ agreed. In particular, what would a 3♦ bid by you now show?

3 diamonds by me would be a transfer to 3N in this auction. Not by agreement, but in all practicality.

I'm not sure I understand what you are saying here - surely partner knows that if you want to play in 3NT you could have bid it yourself so will look to bid something else. My worry would be whether he would bid his strong 4 card major looking for a Moysian, or make the cheaper cue. But anyway you can still take 3NT out to 4♣ and not have lost anything.

[P_Marlowe]

Agree with the bidding, now pass.

What have I shown?

A bal. hand, with 3 card club support, 4 diamonds,
no 4 hearts, with heavy slam interest.
Looks more or less, what I hold.

The only question I have, did partner already
limit his hand, before I did bid 4C, would it
be possible at this point, that he still could hold
a max. min opener.

With kind regards
Marlowe

[skjaeran]

Partner seems to be 4-4-0-5 and holds a minimum.

That means we're playing with a 30 hcp deck, and I've got 15 very nice hcp for partner. Even with a light opening style, I'm raising this. 6♣ won't be worse than on a 3-3 break, and often far better than that.

[jdonn]

skaeran, on Aug 18 2008, 02:09 PM, said:

That means we're playing with a 30 hcp deck

Hehe yesterday with Clee we actually had a hand with 30 HCP in three suits and a void in the other. Very easy grand to bid (they didn't even interfere in our auction) but our opponents missed it

Dealer: xx AQJxx xx KQJx
Responder: AKQJxxx Kx - Axxx

[ochinko]

I voted for 6♣, although I'd be more confident with the same controls and distribution, but a point *less* in my hand:

♠ AKQ
♥ KQ5
♦ 9873
♣ K84

[Edmunte1]

This slam demands usually 3 out of 3 small important cards (♥10, ♠J, ♣J) in partner's hand to be a good one. Some numbers:

- Partner will have ♠J in 4/10 cases (40%) or we need the suit to be 3-3, for a total of 60% chance
-Partner will have ♥10 in 3/9 cases (33%) or we need the suit to break 3-3 for a total of 55% chance
-Partner will have ♣J in 3/8 cases (37,5%) or we need the suit to break 3-2 for a total of 80% chances

It depends a lot of your opening style.
-If you open usually with 11+ hcp, the slam will be a 55% affair
-If you open usually with 10+ hcp with this shape it will be something like
((55% x 80%) +(55% x60%))/2 =38.5%

[jdonn]

You severely underestimate. For example take the case where you believe slam is 55%. If partner has Jxxx K9xx - AQJxx the hearts will come in if they are 3-3, singleton A or Ax on your left, or Tx on either side. Even if he has K432 you forgot about A or Ax on your left (or they might lead the A from Axxx!), which combines to be a lot better than a 3-3 break. Or say partner has Txxx KTxx - AQJxx. It's not on 3-3 spades, it's approximately on 3-3 spades OR J on either side OR Jx on either side OR doubleton spade with doubleton club.

[Edmunte1]

Yes, i realised after i posted (i should stop posting after 1 a.m. ) that i missed many other chances like:
-Partner has ♠10 and ♠J doubleton or singleton (around 13%)
- Partner has ♥9 and ♥10 is falling (around 11%)
- Hearts are 4-2 and East has Ax in hearts (around 8%)
- Some squeeze chances if West has Ax in hearts and East has 4♥ and ♦A (around 4%)

So the slam is playable