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19 is not 20

#21 User is offline   ASkolnick 

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Posted 2008-August-11, 07:55

I actually disagree with the responding Aces to quantatative to be shot.

There are plenty of good reasons to do it, assuming that it is not required to respond Aces to quantative, I know 2 reasonable methods to play over 2N-4N.

1) Bid your minor. (5 card,4 card whatever method) Sometimes you need to play in a suit for your 12th trick.

2) Shiow Aces. Let's take 1N (15-17). I am holding a good 16 point hand with some T,9's. (1N-4N). OK. I also have a good 16, wouldn't be a good idea to make sure I am not off 2 Aces before bidding to slam even we both have max's.

Now, with a minimum in either case, you should pass.
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#22 User is offline   jtfanclub 

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Posted 2008-August-11, 08:36

ASkolnick, on Aug 11 2008, 08:55 AM, said:

I actually disagree with the responding Aces to quantatative to be shot.

That's the way I play it...pass if you have a minimum, show aces with a max.

There are other reasons why it might help. Partner may want to play in 6NT if we have all the aces but 6 of a minor if we're missing one, for example.

Especially in MPs, I think it's people who bid 6NT over a quant 4NT who should be shot. How do you know partner wanted to play the slam in no-trump, instead of a minor?
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#23 User is offline   TylerE 

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Posted 2008-August-11, 08:53

What I play with one partner is:


Pass = Minimum
Show Aces = Unsure wether to blast or not, but not dead minimum.
Bid 6N = Max
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#24 User is online   mike777 

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Posted 2008-August-11, 09:04

jtfanclub, on Aug 11 2008, 09:36 AM, said:

ASkolnick, on Aug 11 2008, 08:55 AM, said:

I actually disagree with the responding Aces to quantatative to be shot.

That's the way I play it...pass if you have a minimum, show aces with a max.

There are other reasons why it might help. Partner may want to play in 6NT if we have all the aces but 6 of a minor if we're missing one, for example.

Especially in MPs, I think it's people who bid 6NT over a quant 4NT who should be shot. How do you know partner wanted to play the slam in no-trump, instead of a minor?

I assume partner wants to play in nt because she bid/rebid quant 4nt. If she wants to play in something else I assume she bids otherwise. B) Esp. At MP.
I just pass or bid 6nt why tell the opp anything.
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#25 User is offline   brianshark 

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Posted 2008-August-11, 09:08

Well I was primarily talking about people who don't know they can pass 4NT.

Having said that, I've never bid a quantitative slam to find myself off 2 cashing aces. If the points add up, you've got the controls.

And regarding showing natual suits over a quant NT, I guess there's some merit to that. But I'd say some form of minor suit stayman would do a better job because you would have more space. If responder isn't interested, opener shouldn't tell.
The difference between theory and practice is that in theory, there is no difference between theory and practice, but in practice, there is.
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#26 User is offline   ASkolnick 

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Posted 2008-August-12, 09:24

Minor suit stayman only works if you tend to be 5-4+ in the minors because you don't usually bid it otherwise, but what if you only have a single 4 card minor? Many times the 12th trick may need to be a ruff in either hand.

I am not saying you should play this.
Also, not saying you need to respond Aces.
Also, have no problem with blasting if that is your style.

My point is that all of these are reasonable treatments and no one should be shot for any of them.
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#27 User is offline   jtfanclub 

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Posted 2008-August-12, 09:31

mike777, on Aug 11 2008, 10:04 AM, said:

I assume partner wants to play in nt because she bid/rebid quant 4nt. If she wants to play in something else I assume she bids otherwise. :P Esp. At MP.
I just pass or bid 6nt why tell the opp anything.

Well, in MPs after a 2NT response, you frequently want to play in NT if you don't have slam, and in 6 of a minor when you do have a slam.

How do you invite slam in Clubs?
How do you invite slam in Diamonds?
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#28 User is online   mike777 

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Posted 2008-August-12, 11:13

jtfanclub, on Aug 12 2008, 10:31 AM, said:

mike777, on Aug 11 2008, 10:04 AM, said:

I assume partner wants to play in nt because she bid/rebid quant 4nt. If she wants to play in something else I assume she bids otherwise. :P Esp. At MP.
I just pass or bid 6nt why tell the opp anything.

Well, in MPs after a 2NT response, you frequently want to play in NT if you don't have slam, and in 6 of a minor when you do have a slam.

How do you invite slam in Clubs?
How do you invite slam in Diamonds?



What 2nt response partner opened 2nt here.

I am not sure what auction you are asking about?

In any event I am never responding with my keycards.

edit if you mean:


1minor=2nt(lets say 12-13) =4nt? Why on earth do I want to play 4nt with 12 hcp but 6 of a minor with 13 hcp in responder's hand?

or


1minor=2nt
3major=slam try partner pls cue...granted this is pretty rare.
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