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Does forcing pass apply here? What is the rule governing forcing pass?

#1 User is offline   twcho 

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Posted 2008-June-23, 21:53

At imp, red vs white, you hold Jxxxx QJ ATxx Jx
Your pd opened 1. You responded with 1!s. LHO overcalled 4 and pd raised to 4. The overcaller came in again with a double and his pd bid 5. What will you do now?
Pd RHO You LHO
1 Pass 1 4
4 Pass Pass X
Pass 5 ?

Do you think that forcing pass applies at this situation? How about the other vulnerability situation? If forcing pass available, will you pass?
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#2 User is offline   rogerclee 

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Posted 2008-June-23, 23:15

This is not a FP situation at any colors.

This would be a forcing pass situation if one of you had shown a very strong hand. Nobody has done that here. Partner would bid 4 very frequently on 4144 and definitely on 4054; there is no reason to assume 5 is going down.
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#3 Guest_Jlall_*

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Posted 2008-June-24, 00:25

no
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#4 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2008-June-24, 03:10

Now that we are on the topic, how about this one:

p - (p) - 1D - (1H)
3H - (p) - 5D - (p)
p - (5H) - p

Yes I know, strange auction but really happened. Is this pass forcing?
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#5 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2008-June-24, 03:16

certainly sounds forcing on general principles, but it's not like we'll bid 6D, so should be NF. (this was to Han, the other one is clearly NF)
... and I can prove it with my usual, flawless logic.
      George Carlin
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#6 User is offline   Sambolino 

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Posted 2008-June-24, 03:18

first is clearly nf as it was pointed out; 2nd is nf only because of initial pass imo
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