At imp, red vs white, you hold Jxxxx QJ ATxx Jx
Your pd opened 1♦. You responded with 1!s. LHO overcalled 4♥ and pd raised to 4♠. The overcaller came in again with a double and his pd bid 5♥. What will you do now?
Pd RHO You LHO
1♦ Pass 1♠ 4♥
4♠ Pass Pass X
Pass 5♥ ?
Do you think that forcing pass applies at this situation? How about the other vulnerability situation? If forcing pass available, will you pass?
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Does forcing pass apply here? What is the rule governing forcing pass?
#2
Posted 2008-June-23, 23:15
This is not a FP situation at any colors.
This would be a forcing pass situation if one of you had shown a very strong hand. Nobody has done that here. Partner would bid 4♠ very frequently on 4144 and definitely on 4054; there is no reason to assume 5♥ is going down.
This would be a forcing pass situation if one of you had shown a very strong hand. Nobody has done that here. Partner would bid 4♠ very frequently on 4144 and definitely on 4054; there is no reason to assume 5♥ is going down.
#4
Posted 2008-June-24, 03:10
Now that we are on the topic, how about this one:
p - (p) - 1D - (1H)
3H - (p) - 5D - (p)
p - (5H) - p
Yes I know, strange auction but really happened. Is this pass forcing?
p - (p) - 1D - (1H)
3H - (p) - 5D - (p)
p - (5H) - p
Yes I know, strange auction but really happened. Is this pass forcing?
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.
- hrothgar
- hrothgar
#5
Posted 2008-June-24, 03:16
certainly sounds forcing on general principles, but it's not like we'll bid 6D, so should be NF. (this was to Han, the other one is clearly NF)
... and I can prove it with my usual, flawless logic.
George Carlin
George Carlin
#6
Posted 2008-June-24, 03:18
first is clearly nf as it was pointed out; 2nd is nf only because of initial pass imo
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