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What would this mean in your partnerships?

#21 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2008-May-27, 08:16

The_Hog, on May 26 2008, 08:16 PM, said:

Agree with all previous. 1H by a passed hand is natural and forcing, 2H is fit showing.

Natural and forcing by a passed hand? Not for me, if I have xxx xx AKJxx xxx I'd like to overcall 1D and pass whatever partner bids thank you very much. :P

Agree with fit bid. Whether I would assume it without discussion depends on the partner.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

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#22 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2008-May-27, 08:20

I usually open a weak 2 on any excuse, so to me this fit-bid would be more like lead-directing on AQJx or AQx only. Playing solid weak 2s, it's an obvious classical fit bid.
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#23 User is offline   TylerE 

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Posted 2008-May-27, 08:59

hotShot, on May 27 2008, 07:44 AM, said:

TylerE, on May 27 2008, 01:25 PM, said:

hotShot, on May 27 2008, 05:46 AM, said:

This is a hand to weak to open as weak 2 or a long suit that has no honors.

I have no earthly idea why people feel the need to show that hand with anything other than PASS.

Your LHO and your partner share some 30+ HCP.
Instead of opening 2 with 7 HCP hoping to find some 10 in partners hand, you are bidding 2 with 2 HCP expecting to find 15+ HCP in partners hand.

I'm thinking your logic here is a bit flawed. You really are expecting 15+ from partner after a simple overcall, on the auction (p)-p-(1)-1? It's possible, sure, but I wouldn't consider it likely. I just think it's bad bridge to make a bid that is still probably down if you catch partner with a cold max, and likely gets partner off to the wrong lead when you end up defending, not to mention handing declarer a roadmap on the distribution.
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#24 User is offline   jtfanclub 

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Posted 2008-May-27, 09:26

hotShot, on May 27 2008, 03:13 AM, said:

In my partnership this is agreed as "misfit, single suited in , weak and preemptive" (implication is that I should not bid on). I don't claim this to be standard.

We play it the same way, because, well, we play it the same regardless of situation.

Since the only weak hand that wouldn't open 2 but could bid it after partner made a call would also have four good or any 5 spades along with the hearts, so I'd play partner for that. Given the auction so far, I don't think that's such an unreasonable thing for him to hold.

It should be a fit bid, I agree.
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#25 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2008-May-27, 10:00

Not playing expert standard myself but find it hard to believe that this should mean "the dog ate my 1 card so I have to bid 2".
The world would be such a happy place, if only everyone played Acol :) --- TramTicket
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#26 Guest_Jlall_*

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Posted 2008-May-27, 10:22

Fit because it can't really mean anything else. A max passed hand can just bid 1H.
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#27 User is offline   dcvetkov 

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Posted 2008-May-27, 10:49

It would be more interesting if partner is not a passed hand.

I see fit is almost always assumed w/o prior discussion. I am not so sure.

I found another interpretation in a book by William Root

- 12-14 points, good 6 card suit, dont care about diamonds, strongly invitational. Obviously this applies for non passed hand.

Fit jump has some advantages, but I would not call this completely ridiculous. For people who would bid just 1H ( non forcing) and see what happens, well it is not exactly the same. Using the bid above, u describe your hand nicely in 1 shot
[COLOR=blue] aka Dimitar
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#28 User is offline   skjaeran 

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Posted 2008-May-27, 11:23

Fit jump. Canonical.
Kind regards,
Harald
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