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Analyse This Overcalls of overcalls

#1 User is offline   Orla 

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  Posted 2008-January-29, 18:16

North is dealer
East is holding:
 3
 10 8 5
 A K Q 5 3
 K Q J 8

West has:
 9 7 4
 A J 7 6
 J 9 7 6
 A 3

Bidding goes (North opens)
1 - 1 - P - 1
.P - 2 - P - 3
East now bids 4, all pass.

Do you agree with the bidding?

How would you bid the hands?

;) rla
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#2 User is offline   mikeh 

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Posted 2008-January-29, 18:54

In the B/I context, I recommend that advancer choose between the conservative single raise, than almost certainly leads to a missed game, or the aggressive cue-bid that probably leads to game, hopefully 5 rather than 3N ;) Altho, the opps better lead their spades to beat 3N.

Advanced/expert players may have an edge here, in that they can (if they choose) have an intermediate bid: the transfer advance: where 2 is not a generic force but a constructive diamond raise, which looks to be about right.

As you can probably tell, I do not advocate nor approve of the 1 advance.

I stand to be corrected, and there may be regional variations here, but my view of standard treatment is that 1 promises a 5+ suit.

While that approach will sometimes miss a 4-4 partial, and, once in a while when both hands are maximum for conservative action, the occasional game, I think that this style is a long-term winner.

When advancer chooses a single raise, overcaller can bid a 4 card major with game ambitions and safety in 3.

When advancer chooses a cue bid, overcaller can bid a 4 card major with a hand worth the equivalent of a K or more than a rock-bottom overcall.

In this manner, most hands that combine for game on a 4-4 fit can be reached. In the interim, by preserving the new major by advancer as 5+, it makes overcaller's raise decisions far easier. He will better evaluate his degree of fit.

I have seen several B/I players, in the local club, advance a 1-level overcal lon weak 4 card suits, sometimes profitably, but the fact that it works sometimes is not a reason for doing it. OTOH, I would be interested in hearing from other experts as to their views/experience on the topic.

BTW, one point I should have mentioned: if you play that the major may be 4 cards, then you had better play it as forcing for 1 round. Otherwise, playing a 4-2 fit or even a 4-1 is going to become a frequent, if disappointing, experience.
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#3 User is offline   firmit 

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Posted 2008-January-30, 06:43

I have a feeling this has been discussed before. That some prefer
1-1-P-1 is 4+ and
1/-1-P-1 should be 5+.

I think W bid just fine. Not so sure about the E 4-bid.
However, as Mike said, I also like the 2 constructive diamond raise. Advancer got room to search for a potential 3NT, but I he knows you probably belong in a diamond contract.
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#4 Guest_Jlall_*

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Posted 2008-January-30, 07:55

1H in this sequence should show 5+. There are exceptions but overcaller should just play responder for 5 imo. On this hand responder had an easy 2C bid.
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#5 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2008-January-30, 08:17

I play 1 as 4+ forcing, wich leaves a problem to overcaller, who can raise to 2, rebid 2 or bid 1NT.

Anyway, loads of close decisions on the bidding and I can't say what I would actually do at the table as any of the players.
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#6 User is offline   cjames 

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Posted 2008-January-30, 09:34

Agree with the others, 2 instead of 1.

I would reccomend you to download this excellent book: http://www.bridge.is/files/Partnership%20B..._2054397795.pdf

and make your partner read it as well!
Squeeze me
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#7 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2008-January-31, 03:16

#1 1H is ok, as along as you play it as forcing
Be aware, that playing 1H as forcing is not standard,
... I am not even sure, that it would be played by the majority
If you play 1H as forcing, bidding 1H on a 4 carder is ok as well,
but again be aware, this is certainly not mainstream, ... and the
raise on 3 cards shows this

#2 (1C) - 1D - (Pass) - 2C (1)
(Pass) - 3NT (2) - (Pass) - Pass

(1) inv.+ better raise
(2) enough for game, clupp stopper,
no 4 card heart / spade suit

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#8 User is offline   benlessard 

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Posted 2008-February-01, 01:35

Advances after overcall are often undiscussed. The simpler way i suggest is same level forcing 2/1 not forcing.

(1C)---1H---(P)------???

1S is forcing but not 2D



(1C)---1D---(P)----1H (could be 4)
(P)---???

2H should be minimum overcall
2C should show a opening hands

(1C)---1D---(P)----1H (tend to show 5 cards)
(P)---2H---(P)-----3D (INV not forcing tend to show only 4H)
(P)---3Nt
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#9 User is offline   jtfanclub 

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Posted 2008-February-01, 10:37

P_Marlowe, on Jan 31 2008, 04:16 AM, said:

#1 1H is ok, as along as you play it as  forcing
    Be aware, that playing 1H as forcing is not standard,

Huh. In my neck of the woods, not only does everybody I know play a 1 level response to an overcall as a 1 round force, but if the auction went:

1 1 -P- 1
-P- -P-

the next call would probably be for the director.

I don't see any real advantage to playing 1 there as nonforcing. Partner should have some points for the 1 bid, and surely somebody belongs at the 2 level.

On the actual hand, I don't see what the big deal is, especially if it's match points. If South had AJ96 instead of AJ76 you'd have good odds for a top. 2 instead of 1 gets you to the right place this time, might get you to 2 instead of 2 next time.

I don't think there's anything wrong with bidding 2 here, mind you, but if you play 1 as frequently a 4 card suit there I don't think the auction was wrong.
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