What Is Standard? not playing Lebensohl
#1
Posted 2008-January-27, 20:31
LHO passes, pard bids 2NT (20-21), RHO passes
You hold
♠Q x x
♥Q J x x
♦x x
♣K x x x
You bid Stayman 3C, do you agree?
p 2NT p 3♣
p 3♦ X ?
What do you do?
What does pass mean?
p 2NT p 3♣
p 3♦ X p
p p
What does pards pass mean?
#2
Posted 2008-January-27, 21:22
A deeper issue: given that the person making the "lead director" is on lead, they probably have a broken suit that they are not planning on leading. I wouldn't be bothered by it, and would just bid 3NT, assuming you are not playing puppet.
#3
Posted 2008-January-27, 21:43
Really? Then what should you bid?
Your pard has no major, you have no fit.
#4
Posted 2008-January-27, 22:46
2. Who cares what partners pass is? The auction is over. We dont get another shot here. Afterward we'll discuss whether or not my pass shows diamond tolerance.
#5
Posted 2008-January-28, 00:33
ArcLight, on Jan 27 2008, 07:43 PM, said:
Your pard has no major, you have no fit.
Quote
I wouldn't be bothered by it, and would just bid 3NT, assuming you are not playing puppet.
#6
Posted 2008-January-28, 00:38
ArcLight, on Jan 27 2008, 09:31 PM, said:
LHO passes, pard bids 2NT (20-21), RHO passes
You hold
♠Q x x
♥Q J x x
♦x x
♣K x x x
You bid Stayman 3C, do you agree?
p 2NT p 3♣
p 3♦ X ?
What do you do?
What does pass mean?
p 2NT p 3♣
p 3♦ X p
p p
What does pards pass mean?
1) agree
2) 3nt now...whatever it means....
#7
Posted 2008-January-28, 01:26
(Not) playing Lebensohl has nothing to do
with the given auction.
Simply put, with no additional agreements
ignore the intervention, i.e. bid the same,
what you would have bid without the
intervention, which would have been 3NT.
A common agreement is, that
- Pass shows xxxx in the suit, i.e. some
interest in playing
- XX shows serious interest in playing the
suit
- 3H / 3S are natural, showing serious doubt
about the existence of a stopper, those bids
could be made on 4 cards suit, and will show
at most xx in the suit, more likely is a single
or a void
- bidding the suit is asking for a stopper, ...
although this does not play a role in the given
auction, since you would be by passing 3NT,
and because of this the 3H / 3S bids can be based
of 4 card suits
With kind regards
Marlowe
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
#8
Posted 2008-January-28, 07:26
Ok, thats what I had hoped. With a stop I bid 3NT or maybe even redouble.
>2. Who cares what partners pass is? The auction is over. We dont get another shot here. Afterward we'll discuss whether or not my pass shows diamond tolerance.
He had xxx in Diamonds and 3♦ X was down 1 when we held 28 HCP.
The overcaller had AKJxx in diamonds and 3NT would have been down off the top had the Doubler lead diamonds and his pard unblocked the Q.
#9
Posted 2008-January-28, 10:46
Pass - Hey, let's defend this!
3NT - Hey, let's play here.
It might be nice for partner if 3NT promised a diamond stop, but without extra methods - I could have as few as 5 points, and partner has a stack - let him figure out the stopper issue.
All imho of course.
V
"gwnn" said:
hanp does not always mean literally what he writes.
#10
Posted 2008-January-28, 16:11
I would play redouble = let's play 3DXX, pass with a hand like this. I wouldn't risk it with an unknown beginner though.
- hrothgar
#11
Posted 2008-January-28, 20:36
It seems to me that you should be able to take advantage of this bad double. Looking at your two little ♦, you're not crazy about playing in 3NT when an opponent has shown length and strength there. If opener is at most 3-3 in the majors, he should either have good enough ♦ that it's not a problem, or you have a ♣ fit (which could be quite good if his shape is 2-3-3=5, and just OK if he's 3=3=3=4).
So is there a way to let opener know that there's a possible ♦ problem, and you'd like to try playing in your 4-3 ♥ or 4-4+ ♣ if he doesn't have a ♦ control?

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