After 1S (2C) dbl (pass), what do you think is opener's normal rebid on a 5=3=3=2 minimum with roughly equal red suits?
And does it change if there is a big disparity between the red suits, eg KQx and Jxx or vice versa?
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5=3=3=2 after 1S (2C) dbl (pass)
#1
Posted 2007-November-11, 12:28
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
#2
Posted 2007-November-11, 12:32
bid 2♦ with equal and the better with disparsity i think. 2♦ is the "more flexible" call. and u can obv. rebid spades with a nice suit
... and I can prove it with my usual, flawless logic.
George Carlin
George Carlin
#4
Posted 2007-November-11, 16:46
Rebid 2S with reasonable S, 2H if the fragment is ok, else 2D.
"The King of Hearts a broadsword bears, the Queen of Hearts a rose." W. H. Auden.
#5
Posted 2007-November-11, 17:14
It's pretty much suit quality between any of the three, but I would probably bid 2♠ the least.
Please let me know about any questions or interest or bug reports about GIB.
#6
Posted 2007-November-11, 21:26
I'd almost always rebid 2♦ here as least of evils. Several reasons:
(1) Partner is less likely to pass 2♦ than any other call, since it's a minor. Often partner will bid 2♠ with doubleton for the same reason partner bids 2♠ over 1♠-1nt(f)-2♦.
(2) The 2♦ call gives partner room to bid hearts if he has a weak one-suiter, whereas a 2♠ call might get partner passing with 1-6-3-3 or the like.
(3) Partner has a right to raise my rebid with a fit. With invitational values partner will often raise 2♥ to 3♥ (on a 4-3) or 2♠ to 3♠ (on a 5-2) whereas partner will often try 2NT over 2♦ if he has a stopper (even with a diamond fit).
(1) Partner is less likely to pass 2♦ than any other call, since it's a minor. Often partner will bid 2♠ with doubleton for the same reason partner bids 2♠ over 1♠-1nt(f)-2♦.
(2) The 2♦ call gives partner room to bid hearts if he has a weak one-suiter, whereas a 2♠ call might get partner passing with 1-6-3-3 or the like.
(3) Partner has a right to raise my rebid with a fit. With invitational values partner will often raise 2♥ to 3♥ (on a 4-3) or 2♠ to 3♠ (on a 5-2) whereas partner will often try 2NT over 2♦ if he has a stopper (even with a diamond fit).
Adam W. Meyerson
a.k.a. Appeal Without Merit
a.k.a. Appeal Without Merit
#7
Posted 2007-November-12, 00:03
gnasher, on Nov 11 2007, 01:28 PM, said:
After 1S (2C) dbl (pass), what do you think is opener's normal rebid on a 5=3=3=2 minimum with roughly equal red suits?
And does it change if there is a big disparity between the red suits, eg KQx and Jxx or vice versa?
And does it change if there is a big disparity between the red suits, eg KQx and Jxx or vice versa?
Negative doubles are great when you have a fit. They are lousy when you do not and have to grope.
There seems to be no expert consensus when you need to grope. See BW magazine article Febuary 1991.
1d=(2c)=x=p
?
AQ7...J73.....AQ94.....852
2H=13 VOTES
2S=9 VOTES
2D=8 VOTES
#8
Posted 2007-November-12, 08:44
If a heart 4-3 looks fine and a diamond 4-3 or spade 5-2 does not, I could easily bid 2♥ on 3. 2♠ only with a good suit.
Michael Askgaard
#9 Guest_Jlall_*
Posted 2007-November-12, 10:39
Depends on your hand, 2D should be the most frequent then 2H then 2S.
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