[MickyB]

Scoring: IMP

Pass-(1NT)-X-(XX)

1NT is 12-14, dbl is penalties, XX shows a 5+card suit and asks partner to bid 2♣. Do you pass or bid 2♠, which would show a very weak hand? If you pass, and it continues 2♣-P-P back to you, do you pass, bid 2♠ or double for takeout?

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[MickyB]

No, pass would be non-forcing...we haven't promised values yet, we would have had no need to bid on a 4333 three-count. 2♠ over 2♣ does sound like a better hand than this, though.

[Codo]

I would bid 2 Spade after the XX too. This shows wehre I live and makes it more difficult for them to find their fit.

Why should I pass? Do I believe, that my pd has a juice pen. double on their 5 card suit? They have 7 + cards in a suit, I have at least two. So 2 Spade is it.

[whereagles]

yeah, an immediate 2♠ is the simplest action

[Edmunte1]

2♠ also in my methods

[MFA]

2♠.
My methods are that a direct bid shows a weak hand with direction, when responder's action is forcing on the 1NT opener. This hand is ok for me.
Pass would not promise values, it could be a balanced 0-count.

After opener's escape, take-out doubles and in principle forcing passes to 2♥. This means that responder is allowed to pass out a worthless hand, but responder's pass in a sequence like
1NT - x - xx - p
2♣ - p - 2♦ - p!

is forcing.

[jtfanclub]

Jlall, on Nov 5 2007, 07:14 PM, said:

Would bid 2S immediately. Having passed showing values I imagine we are in a forcing pass. I would bid 2S now.

Huh, I thought the pass of the XX showing balanced-or-values was standard.

Shows what I know.