[mike777]

The_Hog, on Jan 18 2007, 09:34 PM, said:

000002, on Jan 19 2007, 10:03 AM, said:

he is an excellent bidder who take a bdl then jump 3nt with:
Txx
AQxxx
AJ
Axx
i like this bidding for a latent slam sense basedon ♥AQ and 16total HCPs.

an MASTER do a great juge on the table.

regards 000002

As you have 3 Spades to the T, and as your best suit, (H), is likely to be facing a singleton or void, I don't regard this player as much of a "master". A "miss ter", maybe.

What no 5d opener? If not Ron needs to post a long discussion.

We are 7-4 yes?

Mr. Ron posts not once, not twice but three times and does not even explain why 5d is correct....incorrect on this hand? Director!

[Gpm_bg]

That's the full diagram of the hands

Scoring: IMP

---

The real reached contract :

N--->E--->S--->W
1♦-->1♥-->DBL->Pass
3♦-->Pass->3NT->DBL
5♦-->Pass->5NT->DBL
Pass->Pass-->RDBL->All passed

♥lead

5NTXX=

[000002]

The_Hog, on Jan 18 2007, 09:34 PM, said:

000002, on Jan 19 2007, 10:03 AM, said:

he is an excellent bidder who take a bdl then jump 3nt with:
Txx
AQxxx
AJ
Axx
i like this bidding for a latent slam sense basedon ♥AQ and 16total HCPs.

an MASTER do a great juge on the table.

regards 000002

As you have 3 Spades to the T, and as your best suit, (H), is likely to be facing a singleton or void, I don't regard this player as much of a "master". A "miss ter", maybe.

1d-1h,would u like to shift if pd shut to 3nt immediately?

---

regards 000002

[Jboling]

FrancesHinden, on Jan 18 2007, 07:48 AM, said:

As for your sample hands, after 1♦ - (1♥) I would bid 2♣ on both of them. I have game forcing values and clubs are my longest suit, so I bid them.

Do you mean that default would be that 2♣ is gameforcing, or just roundforcing? How would you bid a hand with a good club suit, but less than gameforcing strength? Probabaly not double followed by clubs, as you said double promises spades. 2♣ followed by a repeated bid in clubs or pass of a limited bid by partner?

I prefer the agreement that 2♣ is nonforcing, I want the common competive handtypes off my chest as fast as possible, so I would have to double and bid clubs next with a gameforcing hand. So my double normally promises 4 card in other major, but can also be a strong singlesuited hand. So double followed by 3NT would still be cards for 3NT and four cards in the other major.

[mr1303]

I don't see where this thread is going at all.

1) If partner's double is for penalty, I pass. Void or no void.
2) If partner'd double is for take-out, I want to know whether it a) shows 4 spades or denies 4 spades. If a) I definitely bid 4S over the double of 3NT, if I put down the dummy.

Even if I play non-forcing free bids, they only apply if the intervention has forced me to bid higher than I wanted to. I believe this is common.

E.g 1D (1S) 2H is not forcing, because the intervention has removed the 1H bid. However 1D (1H) 2C is still forcing, since if the opponent had passed I'd still have to bid clubs at the 2 level.