Balancing with 20 count by opener
#1
Posted 2007-January-11, 02:45
♠AKT7
♥QJx
♦AQ8xx
♣A
1♦ 2♠ pass pass
???
Explain your bid.
#2
Posted 2007-January-11, 03:15
In this auction I think pass is the better choice.
#3
Posted 2007-January-11, 03:28
if he bid 3♥ for example (he/she knows that we have probably fit ♦, so i don't expect 4th♥lenght as 3♥ovecall on 2♠X.
so after 3♥ i will bid 3♠ and will left the game to continue as partner prefer.
But i will not pass. Maybe risky, but better declarer then defender with that strenght.
#4
Posted 2007-January-11, 05:05
#5
Posted 2007-January-11, 05:10
Second choice is to pass, but game is easily possible.
Double is a misdescription. Opening 2NT is horrible.
#9
Posted 2007-January-11, 08:01
a simple assumption is 2:1 distribution in 7Hcps,assume ♥ K ♦j ♣k,let's see what will happen?
♠AKT7
♥QJx---------K
♦AQ8xx------J
♣A------------k
Apparently, 3nt is a good contract with 600 score and 70%success----opposite 2♠-pass only 400 top.
so we decide to proceed the auction.now,among 2nt/dbl/3nt,whcih one is the best?
OFCZ, it's dbl.the primary/nucleus reason is pd's lebenshol 2nt suitable to us now.when pd's transfer 3♣ u can 3♦ to refuse it.
3♦ is a good contract if pd has a poor hand,it better than 2nt because pd would not to withdraw 3♦ if u reopen 2nt,this 2nt almost a 6322 shape and solid ♦ suit.
regards 000002
#10
Posted 2007-January-11, 08:19
#12
Posted 2007-January-11, 09:55
#13
Posted 2007-January-11, 10:57
Double doesn't work: while I understand the comment about lebensohl, there is little chance partner will ever work out this hand type. If I pull his hypothetical 2N to 3♦, rejecting the relay to 3♣, I don't show this hand: I show a good (say 15-17 count) 2=4=6=1 or 1=4=6=2 with decent ♦s. I positively do not show 2+♠ stoppers and a 20 count
Pass is a sure 200 or more on most days, and I am going to wish I had passed if partner passes 2N, but partner will take me to game on many hands, including some on which 3N makes
#14
Posted 2007-January-11, 15:04
A balancing 2NT is supposed to show 19-20 isn't it ? So 2NT
#15
Posted 2007-January-11, 16:01
I'll pass and trust my judgement here.
#16
Posted 2007-January-11, 17:17
neilkaz, on Jan 11 2007, 04:04 PM, said:
A balancing 2NT is supposed to show 19-20 isn't it ? So 2NT
My guess would be that for most, the balancing 2N shows a hand intending to jump to 2N over a 1 Major response (assuming no 4 card fit) so upgraded 17 too strong for 1N to 19... with a balanced 20 count, most open 2N... but if you play 2N as 21-22, then you could hold 20. I sure would not distort my agreements in this regard to cater to a 20 count 5431 or 4441.... the balanced 18-19 is far more frequent. That's why I said that in a sense 2N s an underbid, but the suit holdings warrant a downgrade so I am comfortable with it.
#17
Posted 2007-January-11, 21:07
#18
Posted 2007-January-11, 22:41
#19
Posted 2007-January-12, 05:04
#20
Posted 2007-January-12, 11:02
I would pass since I consider chances of making a game as rather low. Even if partner turns up with a couple of good cards, RHO must be rather short in ♦ to bid 2♠ in this vulnerability, so diamonds might not run. So take your plus in 100s.
Regards

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