Posted 2006-December-20, 10:04
Here's another take on why the club back seems critically flawed, IMO.
Assume that Declarer holds ♠Kxx ♥KJx ♦AQx ♣K10xx as suggested.
That gives partner ♠xx ♥Ax ♦xxxxx ♣Axxx
So, on the heart lead, he wins and fires back a heart. On the third heart, he pitches the diamond 6. This is weird. You can see the 10, 9, and 3. If Declarer only has one small diamond, partner must have the 8 or 7. Why play the 6?
My gut thought on this is that partner is trying to be ambiguous in diamonds and to allow himself time to decide whether to make the six look small later (playing his reserved high pip) or larger (playing any of many small pips).
Of course, Declarer could have AQ87 in diamonds, or A87.
Anyway, Declarer now finesses a spade and the hooks the club. On the fourth heart, partner pitches a low diamond. What did he pitch from?
If the original hand was as shown, partner was down to ♠x ♥-- ♦xxxx ♣Axx. Knowing that a club back would set the contract, would you not throw the spade, to ensure that a spade is not the lead, trusting that your initial diamond play eliminated out anything but a club? Or, wouldn't you consider a low club pip? The diamond is way too ambiguous.
You might get ambiguous with Kxx of clubs remaining, I suppose, but why not encourage a club (or discourage a spade)?
Maybe the diamond six was initially and actually high. In that case, Declarer held AQ87 in diamonds. Adding in the spade King and the heart K-J, he might only have the club King. This gives partner ♠xx ♥Ax ♦6xxx ♣Axxxx. At the point of your play of the fourth heart, he is reduced to ♠x ♥-- ♦xxx ♣Axxx. Again, why not play the spade? Add the diamond Queen in, and remove a club (Opener originally held A98 in diamonds), and a small spade again looks right.
In other words, partner's play of the second diamond is weird. Give him, however, an original holding of ♠Kx ♥Ax ♦Qxxxxx ♣xxx. The first two cards are the same. On the third heart, he is down to ♠Kx ♥-- ♦Qxxxxx ♣xxx. Picthing the diamond six (per force third best) makes sense when looking at dummy's K109, an ambiguous play in case Declarer holds AJ(x).
After the spade, then club finesse, you cash the fourth heart. What does partner have to pitch from? ♠K ♥-- ♦Qxxxx ♣xx. He obviously cannot pitch the spade. Why not pitch the club, to make absolutely certain that you return a spade? Two reasons.
First, partner "knows" that clubs are splitting 3-3. Pitching a club will make Declarer more confident that this is the case. Second, discouraging clubs suggests strongly that he actually has the spade King, such that, on a spade switch from you, Declarer has some suggestion, now, that rising is the best line.
Partner's problem at this point is that he must induce a spade switch in such a way as to not induce Declarer to rise. It seems reasonable that his best chances lie in making another ambiguous play and hoping that you work out more from ambiguity than Declarer.
"Gibberish in, gibberish out. A trial judge, three sets of lawyers, and now three appellate judges cannot agree on what this law means. And we ask police officers, prosecutors, defense lawyers, and citizens to enforce or abide by it? The legislature continues to write unreadable statutes. Gibberish should not be enforced as law."
-P.J. Painter.