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v-AJTxx-AQJTxxx-x

Poll: How do you bid (opps passing)? (32 member(s) have cast votes)

How do you bid (opps passing)?

  1. 1D-1S-2H... (26 votes [81.25%])

    Percentage of vote: 81.25%

  2. 1D-1S-3H... (2 votes [6.25%])

    Percentage of vote: 6.25%

  3. 1D-1S-4H... (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

  4. 1D-1S-3D... (1 votes [3.12%])

    Percentage of vote: 3.12%

  5. 1H... (3 votes [9.38%])

    Percentage of vote: 9.38%

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#1 User is offline   kgr 

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Posted 2006-October-24, 16:59

MP'S, you are dealer (vull not known)
v-AJTxx-AQJTxxx-xµ

I did bid: 1D-1S-2H...
My (new) partner didn't like this because with 16pts and short H and D he will bid 6NT (playing MP's) after this start. He says that opening H is better and if I want to open D then 1D-1S-4H is better (1D-1S-3H would be splinter or would you define it for a hand ike this?)
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#2 User is offline   mcphee 

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Posted 2006-October-24, 17:22

Seems like a no brainer to bid 2H over 1S. Don't I want to show partner a strong hand with longer D than H?
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#3 User is offline   inquiry 

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Posted 2006-October-24, 18:14

2 is the correct option.
--Ben--

#4 User is offline   HeartA 

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Posted 2006-October-24, 18:19

While I can understand the opening of 1H with 5-6 hands and decent H suit, I don't tolerate 1H opening for 7-5, much stronger and longer diamonds. Minors are discreminated all the time, but should not to this degree.

After 1D opening, H should be announced, starting at 2 level and 3 level if possible:
1D - 1S
2H - 2S/2N/3C/3D
3H - ?
4D
Senshu
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#5 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2006-October-24, 22:30

1D 1S 2H is right. I can understand his argument that a reverse shows high card points, but with this distribution you need to show the alternate lengths. He should not just blast 6NT because he has 16 points. That is a butcher's bid.

1D 1S 4H is a possibility if you have it defined in your system for this sort of hand.
"The King of Hearts a broadsword bears, the Queen of Hearts a rose." W. H. Auden.
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#6 Guest_Jlall_*

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Posted 2006-October-24, 22:39

This hand is amazing. If partner wants to bid slam I'm very happy. If he bids slam with 16 and a complete misfit after you show 5-6, he is a poor player.
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#7 User is offline   FrancesHinden 

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Posted 2006-October-25, 03:15

A reverse is fine on this hand, it has huge playing strength. As an alternative, I would open 1D and rebid diamonds: I wouldn't open 1H with 2-card difference in lengths (e.g. - Axxxx KQ109xxx x I would open 1D and rebid 2D).

A good partner should be aware that although a reverse usually shows 16+ or so, if you subsequently show a 5-6 you may well be a bit lighter in HCP.

Consequently, if you have a really serious 2-suiter - say with the HK as well

- AKJ10x AQJ10xxx x

you need to do a fair amount of bidding to tell partner your hand is that good.
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#8 User is offline   badderzboy 

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Posted 2006-October-25, 03:32

One point after 1D-1S-2H is that partner has 3C available if very strong as 4th suit forcing at which point you bid 3H showing at least 6-5 and if he bid 3NT I might even bid 4D to show the extreme shape as a slam try.

Steve
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#9 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2006-October-25, 08:55

I prefer to open 1, but 1 is ok as well. After 1-1 you can be optimistic and bid 2, or pessimistic and stick to 2.
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#10 User is offline   cherdano 

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Posted 2006-October-25, 10:01

whereagles, on Oct 25 2006, 04:55 PM, said:

I prefer to open 1, but 1 is ok as well. After 1-1 you can be optimistic and bid 2, or pessimistic and stick to 2.

1 then 2? With a 3.5 loser hand? Sounds like a good way to +190 to me.

Arend
The easiest way to count losers is to line up the people who talk about loser count, and count them. -Kieran Dyke
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#11 User is offline   mikeh 

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Posted 2006-October-25, 10:42

Any partner who criticizes 1 then 2 is revealing a lot more about his inadequacies as a player than yours.

There is a LOT of room between 2 and 6N, and a good player takes advantage of that room to allow you to describe a 5-6 type of hand, in which case a good player will recognize that you may have fewer than the normal hcp for a reverse: all good players reverse with 5-6 hands with lower high card strength than is required on 4-5 hands.

I cannot comment on what he should have bid without knowing his hand and without knowing if you had any discussions about methods: most expert partnerships (and many advanced) will have agreements about bids by responder that show weakness: a common agreement on your auction would be that 2 is ambiguous on strength (altho forcing for 1 round) and 2N is ostensibly a puppet to 3 (which opener need not accept and would not accept here) usually based on weakness, and any other bid is forcing: thus with a horrible hand intending to play 3, he bids 2N then (over 3) 3, while with a good hand wanting to set as trump he bids an immediate 3.

In any case, no good player would ever force to 6N without giving partner a chance to describe his hand.

There is a school of (expert) thought that says that you have to open 1 else you are forever denying a 5 card major (Steve Robinson is the main exponent of that school) but that is very, very much a minority position: 95% of good players open this 1. And 90% of them would tend to bid 2 next.

(all estimates are inherently flawed, and should not be relied upon :) )
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#12 User is offline   kenberg 

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Posted 2006-October-25, 11:20

Only 93% of all estimates are inherently flawed.
Ken
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#13 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2006-October-25, 13:46

I prefer 1 not for any technical reason, but because it makes the rest of the auction easier and clearer.
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#14 User is offline   HeartA 

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Posted 2006-October-25, 13:55

whereagles, on Oct 25 2006, 02:46 PM, said:

I prefer 1 not for any technical reason, but because it makes the rest of the auction easier and clearer.

Clear? After 1H opening, you would NEVER be able to tell your pd of the 7-card D suit heading by AQJ. And the more you emphasize D, your pd would take H as 6+ suit which you don't have.
Senshu
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#15 User is offline   kgr 

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Posted 2006-October-25, 15:21

Scoring: MP

1D-1S
2H-3NT
4H-All Pas

The lead was SK ruffed by you. This is MP's:
- Do you cross to DK to finesse Hearts?
- Would you prefer to be in 5D or are you happy with the better paying 4H?
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#16 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2006-October-25, 15:23

Of course I cross in diams and finesse hearts. It's a no-brainer at MPs. And yes I'm happy at 4.
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#17 User is offline   HeartA 

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Posted 2006-October-25, 15:47

At MPs, I think I would cross to dummy and run HQ. Well, it could jeopardize 4H: H lose HK, H ruff (dummy's Q is gone) and over-ruff. C back and another D ruff. And if I reserve HQ on dummy and run small H. I could lose to stiff K and lose another H if D back (I ruff with HQ).

I could improve the chance by discarding club at trick 1. Then I would cross to dummy to run HQ....
Senshu
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#18 User is offline   FrancesHinden 

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Posted 2006-October-30, 11:35

kgr, on Oct 25 2006, 10:21 PM, said:

Scoring: MP

1D-1S
2H-3NT
4H-All Pas

The lead was SK ruffed by you. This is MP's:
- Do you cross to DK to finesse Hearts?
- Would you prefer to be in 5D or are you happy with the better paying 4H?

1. Yes. The only question is whether to run the HQ or play low to the jack. Running the Queen gains when RHO has Kxx (12 tricks) or Kxxx (11 rather than 10) of hearts. Low to the Jack gains when RHO has 2 or 3 low hearts and a singleton diamond, or singleton HK.

As HeartA mentions, if I'm going to run the HQ I'd discard at trick 1.
Running the queen looks slightly better once I've remembered the scissors coup.

2. At matchpoints I'm happy to be in 4H. At IMPs I'd prefer 5D, as 4H is going off with hearts 4-1 offside.
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