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How to bid this nice slam? Slambidding

#1 User is offline   zimzam 

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Posted 2006-July-18, 01:59



Starting auction like this (SAYC):

   pass   1♦   pass
1♥   1♠   DBL(x)   pass
....

(x) 3card ♥-support

How would you continue to reach the nice 6♦-slam (no further interventions from opposition).

zimzam
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#2 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2006-July-18, 03:13

Pfff, too difficult for me, I'll probably settle for 3NT
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#3 User is offline   mr1303 

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Posted 2006-July-18, 04:08

I agree.

You either need the club finesse or the Jack of hearts to come down don't you? I suppose there might be some sort of squeeze available.

But at a double dummy guess, I'll try this sequence

1D 1H (1S)
X 2S
3D 3S
4C 4NT
5C 6D

2S set up a game force, 3D showed an extra diamond, 3S/4C were cues, 4NT was RKCB, 5C = 0/3, 6D was "I hope it is 3"
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#4 User is offline   Winstonm 

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Posted 2006-July-18, 05:34

I'm not sure it is very biddable, but if so it would have to be:

1D-p-1H-1S
X-P-2S-P
3D-P-4D-P
4H-P-4S-P
5C-P-6D-P
P-P

Although in practice over 3D the practical call would be 3N.
"Injustice anywhere is a threat to justice everywhere."
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#5 User is offline   zimzam 

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Posted 2006-July-18, 06:22

when we played this hand yesterday my pd continued 3♦ after my supp. dbl. And then it went:

3♥   3♠
4♣   4NT
5♣    and for some reaseon he now bid 6♥! that was 1 down
(hearts didnt break but ♣King was onside)

5♣ was 3 aces with diamond trumphs, so 6♦ should be obvious now.

:P
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#6 User is online   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2006-July-18, 07:01

zimzam, on Jul 18 2006, 07:22 AM, said:

when we played this hand yesterday my pd continued 3♦ after my supp. dbl. And then it went:

3♥   3♠
4♣   4NT
5♣    and for some reaseon he now bid 6♥! that was 1 down
(hearts didnt break but ♣King was onside)

5♣ was 3 aces with diamond trumphs, so 6♦ should be obvious now.

:P

Hi,

well 3D forcing would certainly help, but in SAYC
it aint, i.e. your partner does risk playing in 3D,
when he knows that your side has enough values
to make game.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#7 User is offline   kenrexford 

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Posted 2006-July-18, 07:36

In this auction, Responder has some reason to be interested, as the spade overcall suggests that finesses will work more often than usual if the finesses are two-way or can be taken against North. That being said, West needs the "perfect hand," which could be:

xx-A(Q/J)x-(A/K)Jxxx-A10x
xxx-A(Q/J)x-(A/K)Jxxx-Ax
or the like.

With these hands, however, I would expect a 1NT opening, even with 14, as the necessary high control count and good five-card diamond suit makes this hand "too strong" to not open 1NT, IMO.

If 1NT is opened, spade interference is less likely. Even if it occurs, assuming values from a 2S call (as opposed to a 1S call with a jump to 2S spurned) is less reliable, making the necessary club finesse problematic, let alone discovery of the diamond fit.

If, and only if, a 1NT call on these "perfect hands" is not allowed in the partnership AND a support double promises more than three-card support (like three-card support, a maximum, and assured 4+ in diamonds) can the slam be sniffed.

Assuming those parameters, slam is relatively easy. After the support double, Responder bids 2S, initially taken as a check for notrump. When Opener declines by bidding 3D, Responder bids 3NT. If Responder wanted to play 3NT, and nothing more, he would bid 3NT immediately. The delayed 3NT suggests that 2S was actually a cue with diamond slam interest. Thus, the delayed 3NT is a choice-of-contracts bid, between 3NT and 6D, IMO. Opener, if allowed to not open 1NT with this hand, should tentatively accept the slam try by bidding 4C, and the slam is then reached.

This entire analysis suggests some merits to not opening an evaluated-up 1NT with "Aces and Spaces" and a good five-card minor, of course.
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