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is the pass forcing? your bid

#1 User is offline   jillybean 

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Posted 2006-July-02, 13:23


Dealer: West
Vul: None
Scoring: IMP
♠ AQ6
♥ J75
♦ K852
♣ J86


West North East South

 3♣    3♠    4♣    4♠
 5♣    Pass  Pass  ?
 


Is pass an option here?

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#2 User is offline   Gerben42 

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Posted 2006-July-02, 13:36

My rule for the 5-level is: IF we have shown at least invitational values or bid a game constructively, a pass on the 5-level is forcing.

Since they preempt partner's 3♠ is constructive. Although this is not so clear for 4♠ the 3♠ bid in combination with the 5-level makes pass forcing for me.

This is likely not the "only" answer, will be interesting to see what others say.
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#3 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2006-July-02, 13:37

No.

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#4 User is offline   Winstonm 

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Posted 2006-July-02, 13:53

In theory it probably depends to a degree on vulnerability; in practice it is probably forcing. For simplicity, my rule is whenever our side has shown substantially the balance of power then pass is forcing. Here, 3S bidder shows some extras by competing at the 3-level and pard has raised to game showing around limit raise values - ergo, the balance of power is on our side and the pass becomes forcing.
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#5 User is offline   inquiry 

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Posted 2006-July-02, 13:57

A couple of rules you might consider: 1) direct raises never establish forcing pass.

2) if we bid vul game and they bid on, pass is forcing.

Thse confict here. For me pass is not forcing
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#6 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2006-July-02, 14:20

If you are looking for a simple version of what is forcing pass, try this:
1) Any time we make a game try and they outbid us, a pass is forcing.
2) otherwise pass is not forcing.

Clearly pass is forcing here.
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#7 User is offline   pclayton 

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Posted 2006-July-02, 14:24

Depends on who you ask. If its me Id say NF, since RHO is an unpassed hand.
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#8 User is offline   luke warm 

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Posted 2006-July-02, 21:42

i'd say pass here is not forcing.. partner bid 3♠ he didn't double... i agree with phil... that isn't to say mike's point re: punishing them because you think you had a vulnerable game is wrong, just that it shouldn't be a p'ship trainwreck
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#9 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2006-July-02, 23:02

I like pass to be forcing here, but I don't think that's standard.

Anyway, pass is not an option with this hand. Double is clear.
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#10 User is offline   EricK 

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Posted 2006-July-03, 00:21

One rule that is useful against weak players is that if pre-emptor bids again then passes are forcing.
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#11 User is offline   Cascade 

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Posted 2006-July-03, 01:09

mike777, on Jul 3 2006, 08:20 AM, said:

If you are looking for a simple version of what is forcing pass, try this:
1) Any time we make a game try and they outbid us, a pass is forcing.
2) otherwise pass is not forcing.

Clearly pass is forcing here.

Which bid is the game try?
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#12 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2006-July-03, 01:24

Cascade, on Jul 3 2006, 02:09 AM, said:

mike777, on Jul 3 2006, 08:20 AM, said:

If you are looking for a simple version of what is forcing pass, try this:
1) Any time we make a game try and they outbid us, a pass is forcing.
2) otherwise pass is not forcing.

Clearly pass is forcing here.

Which bid is the game try?

4S?

Marlowe
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#13 User is offline   FrancesHinden 

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Posted 2006-July-03, 03:19

This looks like an obvious double whether or not pass is forcing.
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#14 User is offline   Wackojack 

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Posted 2006-July-03, 04:28

Yes obvious double here. Suppose, however, you take away 2 clubs from the South hand and make them 2 small hearts. It now matters what you make of North's pass. How many clubs do opps have between them and how many spades for the NS total?
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#15 User is offline   jillybean 

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Posted 2006-July-03, 07:33

Thanks for the replies, here's the full hand


Scoring: IMP


West North East South

 3♣    3♠    4♣    4♠
 5♣    Pass  Pass  Dbl
 RDbl  Pass  Pass  Pass
 




5♣XX= (corrected) :)
“It is not because things are difficult that we do not dare, it is because we do not dare that they are difficult.”
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#16 User is offline   FrancesHinden 

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Posted 2006-July-03, 08:16

I'm so confused.
why did West redouble?
why did it go off?

what drugs were North on?
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#17 User is offline   hrothgar 

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Posted 2006-July-03, 08:32

Quick comment:

I was North on this hand. I readily admit that I am not proud of my overcall. I would have preferred to have a better suit and more defense. With this said and done, I was worried that my club void implied that partner would have some club length. I figured that if I passed there would be a lot of hands where we'd defend 3 clubs with a Spade game available.

I'm also not sure whether I should take action over 5C or after 5CXX...
I don't consider either pass or 5♠ clear cut.

In the end, the 3S overcall got what it deserved since 5CXX made without much trouble.

Like you, I have no idea where the XX of 5♣ came from...
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#18 User is offline   jillybean 

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Posted 2006-July-03, 08:48

correction contract was 5♣XX=
“It is not because things are difficult that we do not dare, it is because we do not dare that they are difficult.”
Bridge should be fun!
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#19 User is offline   keylime 

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Posted 2006-July-03, 11:46

Pass is nonforcing here. They have bid and raised freely in competition.

I don't think the 3♠ overcall is that bad, but I do think leaving the double and then the "interesting" redouble in with a void is begging disaster, especially at IMP scoring. I'd yank it to 5♥.
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#20 User is offline   mikeh 

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Posted 2006-July-03, 11:52

Quite the bidding by west: I suppose that one could 'justify' the 5♣ on the basis that he can play east for very short ♠'s but why he redoubled is beyond me....was this online by any chance? Not that that means much :lol:

As for the original question, for me the pass would be non-forcing... but I would have doubled anyway :lol:
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