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just another bidding question

#1 User is offline   Mr. Dodgy 

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Posted 2006-April-28, 17:39

Scoring: IMP


Pass-Pass-Pass-1
Pass-1-Pass-4
Pass-?

Do you act? Do you agree with the bidding to this point? Does it make any difference knowing that the opening bidder will usually open on 11 HCP in 4th seat, and that opening 2-level and higher bids in 4th seat show <6 losers?
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#2 Guest_Jlall_*

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Posted 2006-April-28, 17:45

Firstly, if north is going to force to game he should splinter with 4C. Second, I do not think north is worth a game force. Perhaps this is my own personal style speaking, but I like to respond light and bid 3S with heavier hands than most. 3S is pretty much right on the money in my books.

As for the 1S bid, I don't like this either. It will lead to a 4-3 fit if partner passes, and will cause him to misevaluate if you end up jumping in hearts. I would like drury, but if that were not available, I would bid 1N. If partner passes he is balanced with a minimum and youre likely in a cold contract with no game.

4S would typically show a 4522 18+ hand. South can make slam opposite AKQx KQJxx Kx xx, but that is a specific hand. If partner has AJxx KQJxx Kx KQ or so the 5 level is in jeopardy (youre not getting to 5H :). The bad trumps are a big warning sign and the third heart is a liability not a plus. I would go low and pass with the awareness that slam may be good. I really am cautious in slam auctions with bad trumps.
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#3 User is offline   Walddk 

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Posted 2006-April-28, 17:45

No, I don't act. Opener has shown a balanced or semi-balanced raise as I play it. A 4 splinter would have made me interested. Whether he is worth a splinter is a different story. Close, but not quite imo. 3 is enough.

Roland
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#4 User is offline   FrancesHinden 

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Posted 2006-April-29, 04:33

I would move on the South cards, but not opposite a partner who thinks the North cards are a 4S bid.

I also would only respond 1S playing some 4-card major system
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#5 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2006-April-29, 05:42

4 isn't the right bid imo. Either you splinter, or you invite. Now partner thinks you're balanced which is not the case. No need to act, since balanced hands will need more strength.
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#6 User is offline   pclayton 

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Posted 2006-April-29, 10:11

I don't like 4; 3 is fine. And I don't respond on junk either.

2 drury is better than 1. If you play some sensible response structure, you should be able to find the 4-4 spade fit.
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#7 User is offline   Double ! 

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Posted 2006-April-30, 15:09

isn't the 4 spade rebid somewhat of an overbid?
IMO, the hand is only worth a 3S rebid. Where are the tricks coming from. Yes, I am likely ruffing a club or two in dummy, using high trumps to do so.

I always thought that a direct raise to game 1H-1S-4S indicated a hand that was likely to have a good play opposite a minimum hand by responder. I am not sure that opener's given hand meets this criterion. In fact, I doubt that I would have responded 1S to start with, especially since my hand doesn't live in the spade suit: no spade honors. I have Axx support in opener's 5+-card major that I won't be able to show without implying some high cards in the spade suit, or at least more than Txxx, and I have an outside ace. (1NT forcing followed by 3H is a common way to handle responder's hand although some have been tinkering with playing a 2C response as a beginning response for handling these types of hand as well as true club hands and some balanced hands.)

With the given bidding, I am now stuck. I haven't yet shown my heart support, I have an outside ace, and good filler cards that might or might not be of value, depending on opener's hand. IMO, responder has dug a hole for him/herself by responding 1S initially from which there is now no clear escape. There could be a slam, and the 5-level could be unsafe, depending (from responder's point of view) on opener's hand. I would expect a better hand for the 4S rebid and, if opener felt that the hand was good enough to force the hand to 4S, why didn't open at least splinter so that responder would have a little more information from which to better evaluate the combined values? Anything responder does at this point could be wrong, IMO the result of the initial response of 1S.

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#8 User is offline   Codo 

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Posted 2006-April-30, 17:53

I agree with Frances, that 3 was enough and that South should act after a normal 4 bid from a normal pd.
I see no point in not bidding 1 Spade. If pd is so weak, that he will pass the bid AND the opps don´t enter the bidding, I will make an easy part score. And if the bidding proceed, a poss. 4-4 fit can produce more tricks then the 5-3 fit- as it may be the case in this hand.
Kind Regards

Roland


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#9 User is offline   bearmum 

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Posted 2006-May-01, 06:04

Mr. Dodgy, on Apr 29 2006, 09:39 AM, said:

Dealer: East
Vul: Both
Scoring: IMP
AKJ9
KT842
A42
2
T874
A53
QJT
A63
 


Pass-Pass-Pass-1
Pass-1-Pass-4
Pass-?

Do you act? Do you agree with the bidding to this point? Does it make any difference knowing that the opening bidder will usually open on 11 HCP in 4th seat, and that opening 2-level and higher bids in 4th seat show <6 losers?

NO I do not think that N should have bid more than 3 (assuming S bid 1):)

BUT as S I would bid 2(as I do not play Drury) so that's where we would play I assume :unsure:
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#10 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2006-May-01, 09:30

It can't be said any better than Justin's post, he is right on the money.
Please let me know about any questions or interest or bug reports about GIB.
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#11 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2006-May-01, 09:51

I also agree with everything that Justin says, nothing left to add.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#12 User is offline   Kalvan14 

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Posted 2006-May-02, 00:22

I do agree with Justin, 100%. And N does not have a 4 re-bid (nor a 4): 3 is just right.
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