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forcing?

#21 User is offline   luke warm 

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Posted 2003-November-05, 17:39

Quote

SO you ALERT it as forcing I hope?

Uh??? Alert it as being forcing. Hardly!


i think you should.. a new suit by responder is forcing and need not be alerted.. however, if a p'ship played that a new suit by responder is *not* forcing, i think it should be alerted

in this case, opener's new suit at the one level, if the p'ship play it as forcing, should be alerted as such... while there may be no penalty imposed for no alert, full disclosure would seem to demand one
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#22 User is offline   inquiry 

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Posted 2003-November-05, 18:37

Hi,

In the partnerships where I play 1S as forcing, I alert it. I suspect because I think the normal way is for it to be non-forcing. But maybe "forcing" is too strong, because while I mean it as forcing, there are hands like the one a few post above where I will pass the "forcing" 1S.

Ben
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#23 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2003-November-05, 20:01

in this case, opener's new suit at the one level, if the p'ship play it as forcing, should be alerted as such

Seriously, I would actually argue the converse - if a new suit is not forcing, then alert it. In ftf I personally know of no partnership that plays it as nf. In the US it is obviously different.
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#24 User is offline   bhugi 

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Posted 2003-November-08, 00:34

In my region, if a new suit is non-forcing, we alert it.

e.g. 1s-2c-2h (alert: non-forcing)

1c-1h-1s is forcing, even with

p - 1c - 1h - 1s, 1s is still forcing, 12-21+, partner have to find a rebid.
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#25 User is offline   mishovnbg 

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Posted 2003-November-08, 16:19

Hi all!
Normal natural meaning of 1SP rebid is NF. Need to be alerted as RF, if your OPP can understand it as NF. If in your club/region/country all play it same, no need to alert ofcourse.
Is better to be or not to be 8) - that is the question :(
My style is positive and hopeful - to be, to bid, to guess...
Shortly - better to be forcing to choose contract or for slam. Worse for score or down after trap pass, but who care ;D.
Misho
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#26 User is offline   Trpltrbl 

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Posted 2003-December-25, 20:14

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is this seq. forcing?

1D - pass - 1H - pass - 1Sp - pass - ??

YES

Mike ;D
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#27 User is offline   dogsbreath 

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Posted 2004-January-02, 00:35

definitely forcing in traditional Acol - unless agreement to the contrary.. but maybe not in sayc or 2/1. reason is to accommodate p having a strong 4-1-5-3 or 4-1-6-2 which is not good enough for a strong 2 opening. In particular ..4-1-5-3 strong hands surely need a cautious approach till p shows some life.
ManoVerboard
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#28 User is offline   mikestar 

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Posted 2004-January-02, 14:44

In SAYC and 2/1 this sequence is non forcing, but many partenerships prefer to play it forcing and I think forcing is the better way in this type of system. In big club systems, opener can't have a hand that can guarantee game opposite a 1-over-1 unless a fit has been found, so this sequnce can be played NF.
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