[HeartA]

Scoring: IMP

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North South played 2/1.
East dealt and passed, South opened 1D, West passed and North respond 2C, and East interfered with 2H:

1) Do you agree with North's 2♣?

East South West North
pass 1♦ pass 2♣
2♥ ?

2) What should South do?


3) For the sake of convenience, assume South passed (West passed also) and North dbled (East also passed). What should South do? do you agree with south's pass?

4) Again, assume South bid 3D (do you agree?) Which bid would you choose?

5) North passed South's 3D, do you agree?

[P_Marlowe]

Hi,

which kind of 2/1 flavour do you play?

1) 2C is ok, if the game force is off, when North
rebids 3C, if 2C is 100% gameforcing, than
... whatever make the bid, that shows an inv.
hand with a long club suit, either a jumb to 3C,
or use 1NT and bid 3C the next round
2) making a forcing Pass is ok, but 3D also
3) why should North dbl?
Having lenght in their suit, he knows that South
cant have a trap pass, 3C

Marlowe

[Codo]

1. Easy 2 Club
2. I had bid 3 Club, showing the fit.
3. Still 3 Club
4. 3 Heart, asking for a stopper, reaching 3 NT
5. If 2 Club is a GF, North cannot pass 3 Diamond, seems quite easy.

[inquiry]

Quote

North South played 2/1.
East dealt and passed, South opened 1D, West passed and North respond 2C, and East interfered with 2H:

1) Do you agree with North's 2♣?

Yes, I agree with 2♣. North has a solid hand, and no reason to distort the bidding with anything else.

Quote

2) What should South do?

South should show support with support and bid 3♣. South has nothing to be embarrased about. EW have a likey minimum 9 card spade fit they have not mentioned (although partner could have 4♠ but only with very good hand). JTx of clubs is great support and this hand is far from a minimum. For Zar fans it has 12 hcp but also 4 Control points and 14 distributional points for a solid 30 Zar points (a king more than mininium), then with the club fit, it gets two more points for JACK and Ten of clubs and a point for the singleton spade. coming to 33. Equavalent to an AQ or AJ more than minimum if you are a hcp counter.

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3) For the sake of convenience, assume South passed (West passed also) and North dbled (East also passed). What should South do? do you agree with south's pass?

South should not have passed for convenience or otherwise. But if he did and north doubled now 3♣ is a huge underbid. This is nice hand in support of clubs. This is why pass was wrong. With AJx the hand looks suitable for a notrump bid, but this hand isn't so notrump orienentied. But 4♣ may shoot you past 3NT. There is no good bid now (3C underbid, 3NT hand is wrong, 4C takes you past 3NT which might be where you belong, 3D you got to be kidding -- are EVER going to show your club support and extra values, 3H - what will partner take this as, 2NT -yuck but might be my choice and if not 2NT then 3NT - which given the first pass maybe the only reasonable choice left at this point.

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4) Again, assume South bid 3D (do you agree?) Which bid would you choose?

ABSOLUTELY NOT... Don't you see you have crappy diamonds and club support? If my partner bid 3♦ I held north's hand I would give and pass if 2♣ was not game forcing. If 2♣ was quasi game forcing (to 3NT or 4 of a minor), I would cue-bid 3♥.

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5) North passed South's 3D, do you agree?

I think pass of 3♦ is acceptable given the misfit auction and suggestion of weakness that south choose to use instead of the honest support with support auction he had available. Look how much EASIER the auction is if south simply does the right thing and raises to 3♣ directly over 2♥'s.

So if I was to assign the blame, south would get most because he counted his hcp and assumed this hand was a minimum, in fact when it wasn't and because he hid his fit with his partner for no apparently good reason.

[calg]

I completely agree with Inquiry's comments. BTW, Nowadays, few people plays 2/1 as 100% GF.

North's hand had minimum without further input from South. Given the auction that South did not bid something over 2H and South rebid 3D over the X, North is easily to assume there's no fit with N-S's holdings. This case, assuming South's hand is minimum, North to pass 3D would be the only choice. I don't think North should bid 3H over 3D, this is an unfit hand, 3H would just push the contract higher at higher risk. From South's auction, it's easy to judge that South's hand would be something like the following from North's view:
S: AJx
H: Kx
D: KJxxxx
C: Xx

Can anyone see a game here? So as Inquiry said, pass 3D is acceptable. I think for South's hand, 3D was the worst bid in this sequence, pass 2HX, 3C, 2N/3N are all better than 3D.

[HeartA]

We play 2/1 100% game forcing.

[mikeh]

I have long played 2♣ as absolute gf, and I do not think that my approach is a dying breed

As for the auction, 2♣ is a tad aggressive, but it is the best call: anything else is weird. So 2♣ is fine.

South could pass 2♥ or bid 3♣: I prefer the pass.

North has a clear reopening double: I do not understand any other bid.

Back to south: I would pass the double. Look at the vulnerability!

3♦ would never have occurred to me as a possible call for South: if I were not passing, I would be choosing between 2N and 3♣. 3♦ is hideous, for several obvious reasons (at least, they seem obvious to me)

[mike777]

If not allowed to open a very sound 2D then prefer 1d=2nt.=12-13invite

[joshs]

HeartA, on Mar 1 2006, 02:31 AM, said:

Scoring: IMP

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North South played 2/1.
East dealt and passed, South opened 1D, West passed and North respond 2C, and East interfered with 2H:

1) Do you agree with North's 2♣?

East South West North
pass 1♦ pass 2♣
2♥ ?

2) What should South do?


3) For the sake of convenience, assume South passed (West passed also) and North dbled (East also passed). What should South do? do you agree with south's pass?

4) Again, assume South bid 3D (do you agree?) Which bid would you choose?

5) North passed South's 3D, do you agree?

Coming from the east coast the system "2/1" means:
a. 2/1 bid game forcing over a 1M opening bid. Any exceptions to game forcing must be designated.

b. 2C over 1D is standard. 10+ Unbal, 11+ Bal. To play 2C/1D as game forcing requires two extra NON-Standard agreements:
3C/1D INV (Alertable)
2N/1D INV (yes boys and girls, the standard meaning of this bid is balanced game forcing. INV 2N is actually an ALERT in the ACBL.)

The issue of 2C promising a rebid, or what exactly to rebid with a 12-13 HCP balanced hand is not satisfactorily dealt with in standard 2/1 agreements. In washington standard, we play 2D waiting over 2C and the sequence: 1D-2C-2D-2N as the only non-game forcing sequence (playing 1D-3C as INV). Its a tricky issue.

Anyway, with this hand I usually play at the 2 level:
x no direction, extra values
I would probably raise with this hand but even if I passed it would go:
1D-P-2C-2H
P-P-x-P
3C-P-3S-P
3N-All Pass

Or
1D-P-2C-2H
P-P-x-P
3D-P-3S-P
3N -All Pass


or....

If I raised it might go:
1D-P-2C-2H
3C-P-3S-P
3N-All Pass

[Kalvan14]

I play 2♣ GF over 1♦. The hand posted is an absolute minimum for a GF: I would prefer 3♣, invitational (and this hand would be a maximum for that bid).

Assuming that 2♣ is not 100% GF (but promises at least one re-bid) S is right in passing. The hand is minimum, and a direct 3♣ promises some extras (it would make sense to use a good/bad 2N in this sequence: either an absolute minimum with clubs fit, or a weak diamonds single-suiter - good suit).

I would never consider 3♦, either directly over 2♥ or after the balancing double.

Over the balancing double, the first impulse would certainly be to pass. alternatively, 2NT, with the good heart stopper.

This is a hand where 3NT is good because all stoppers are aces.]