bobh2, on Mar 1 2006, 10:10 PM, said:
We both know you can concoct "magic hands" that the hands that start an auction of 1s-2s can make a slam. That is true, no problem at all with that. The problem I have is the math, and your use of it to take potshots. So, like luke said, let logic prevail. In my not real humble opinion, you either are being a s***-disturber or you just haven't thought about this at all. Consider: A 1s bid is not a 2c bid. Therefore, it is limited, by your defination of the strength/loser count of 2c. My concept of standard bidding is, after a few years of playing, that 2c is not a game force, but with a one-suiter, being within one trick of game, and as the hand gets better, in terms of losers and high cards, it's more and more likely to be opened 2c. So, for arguments' sake, let's assume a 1s bid is limited to...er....21 points...say maybe even 22 if mostly soft values. Let's say that a 2s raise is limited to 9 high cards, that's about standard, I think. Do the math. 30-31 highs, total. Did you notice that, without extraordinary distribution, along with both partners having all they can have, the very most, you don't have a slam. It takes something rare and special for this to occur over 1s-2s. I think, so far, this is hard to argue with, after all, it is sorta a basic of the "approach-forcing" concept of bidding, a very old term dealing with how we bid standard and 2/1, today.
Why is that? Because very, very good bidders, with today's modern tools, probably won't be able to bid more than 1 of 20 of those hands. Don't like that estimate? Go to a Regional, and read the score sheets. Add up the 480's and 680's where that score is consistant and see how many times the obviously making slam got bid. So, 1 of 20, 1 of 10, who cares? 1 of 20 might be high, I donno. Now, take all the other times the bidding got started 1s-2s. How many times is this auction going to produce 12 tricks? My experience says about 1 in a thousand, maybe worse. Let's get real frisky, and say 1 of 500. So, being very conservative with my argument, 1 of 500 hands work and of those 500, one of ten has any shot at getting bid......my math says that 1 of 5000 occurrances, what does yours say? So...I tell beginners/intermediates/advanced players to forget the slam over 1Major-2Major? Why, it's got a shot, once in 5000 hands...how remiss of me. And that's assuming players who can play the shine off a ceramic plate. Hmmmmm...and you think I ought to retract what I said? Not on your life.
I disagree with your estimates of the likelihood of slam by orders of magnitude.
First, the point count approach. Laying aside the fact that there certainly exist hands where I would open 1
♠ on more than 22 points (for fear of being unable to describe them properly after a 2
♣ opening), we reach the maximum of 30-31 HCP. This is, I agree, unlikely to be enough for slam unless one player or other has a shortage somewhere. But singletons (even doubletons on the right hands will suffice) are hardly "extraordinary distribution".
My instinctive guess is that the proportion of hands starting 1
♠ : 2
♠ where one would like to be in slam is
much higher than your suggested one in a thousand. I generated a few dozen hands which would start with this auction, and a cursory inspection suggested that around 6 made slam odds-on: around one in 10. Quite probably my method was biased towards slams, but I don't think it could be tremendously so. Could anyone with the means run a proper simulation here?
Then I would think that proper bidding can find a decent proportion of these: is half too optimistic? (incidentally your measurement technique of looking at the travellers is flawed; everyone may be making 12 tricks because two finesses are both on: this doesn't make the slam a good one).
Possibly my intuition is out on this. I'd like to hear others' opinions.