I'd appreciate a lot constructive suggestions/comments on the following issue :-)
We play Real Diamond Precision, with weak NT (good 12-15), and 1D is ALWAYS 4+ cards and unbalanced.
(For the sake of this discussion I'd like to skip the issue of hands with 5 bad clubs+ a 4cM + 3 diamonds. Let's just assume that 1D is always 4+ cards and unbalanced, the point is interesting, But I'd prefer to use other threads to discuss it)
Now, we use opener's 1NT rebid as a "catchall" to show hands that cannot or do not want to show a second suit at the 2 level; most times it will be hands with longer clubs than diamonds, or hands that do not want to reverse, including 4441's.
This way, the 2C rebid always shows 5+D and 4+C
Example (uncontested):
1D-1H
..-1NT = Canapè in minors (4D+5C)
..-2C = Natural, excluding canapè (5+D and 4+C)
1D-1S
..1NT =
...........a.Canapè in minors (4D+5C)
...........b.5D+4H (cannot reverse)
...........c.1=4=4=4 (cannot reverse)
..-2C = Natural, excluding canapè (5+D and 4+C)
THE QUESTION
The above scheme refers to uncontested auctions.
However, let's assume a sandwich overcall.
1D-(p)-1H-(1S)
Now, what should opener's 1NT rebid mean ?
I have thought of:
....a. "natural-ish" meaning. Of course the 1D opener is unbalanced so it cannot show a bal hand, but *might* show a hand with shortness in pard suit and a stopper (keep in mind we use support doubles so we might just pass to deny 3 cd support), typically a 4=1=5=3.
I am not sure this is the best way to use 1NT
....b. ignore interference, that is, use it to show a canapè hand. However, I hate to wrongside NT when opps have advertised a suit.
What do you think ?
Thanks in advance for any suggestions !!

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