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After [1C] X [XX] - what's your choice?

#1 User is offline   jules101 

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Posted 2011-June-06, 19:45



Do you pass or bid?

Please explain why you chose your action?
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#2 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2011-June-06, 19:47

It's an easy 1 bid. Why? huh.. it's text book: give priority to a major suit.
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#3 User is offline   mgoetze 

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Posted 2011-June-06, 19:53

1, because that is the suit where we are most likely to have a fit.

Why don't I pass? Because keeping partner's life simple is the right thing to do.
"One of the painful things about our time is that those who feel certainty are stupid, and those with any imagination and understanding are filled with doubt and indecision"
    -- Bertrand Russell
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#4 User is offline   Siegmund 

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Posted 2011-June-06, 20:37

Spelling it out a little more clearly for OP... it's a mandatory 1S bid. If you pass, you are telling partner that you like his suits equally well and want him to choose.
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#5 User is offline   nigel_k 

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Posted 2011-June-06, 21:44

Pass.

I would have bid 1 without the redouble but I don't see any reason to introduce 9xxx when I don't need to and I have another place to play. Pass is easy, textbook, mandatory, and doesn't cause any problem for partner that I can see.
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#6 User is offline   twcho 

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Posted 2011-June-06, 23:26

My regular partner and I have special partnership agreement. Whenever one pass over opponent's redouble, he shows desire to play this contract, i.e. the advancer must have long and he prefer to play 1XX. We DOESN'T pass the redouble in order for partner to pick a suit.

Back to this hand. Pass is not justified and 1 is the right choice for us.
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#7 User is offline   Antrax 

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Posted 2011-June-06, 23:41

In my partnership, I would bid 1. We're looking for a safe home where we won't be penalized by the opponents, and I do like some suits more than others. 1 over 1 because our doubles tend to emphasize the majors, so doubling with 4-4 in the majors and 2 clubs is not unheard of, even with minimum HCP.
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#8 User is offline   Mbodell 

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Posted 2011-June-07, 00:01

View Posttwcho, on 2011-June-06, 23:26, said:

My regular partner and I have special partnership agreement. Whenever one pass over opponent's redouble, he shows desire to play this contract, i.e. the advancer must have long and he prefer to play 1XX. We DOESN'T pass the redouble in order for partner to pick a suit.

Back to this hand. Pass is not justified and 1 is the right choice for us.


I have this agreement with one partnership as well but it is only over minors, not majors. And I think it is only with unpassed hands. Any hand I'm confortable defending 1XX opposite a normal t/o double I'd have opened already.
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#9 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2011-June-07, 00:33

1S is obvious.
"The King of Hearts a broadsword bears, the Queen of Hearts a rose." W. H. Auden.
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#10 User is online   paulg 

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Posted 2011-June-07, 01:47

1.

Pass works best when they are really planning to penalise us or when partner has a strong heart single-suiter, but bidding one spade looks normal.
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#11 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2011-June-07, 02:29

1S.

The reason: Playing with an stranger, you have no idea, how he will
interpret Pass.
Pass could be no preference (this is our agreement) or it could be
willingness to play 1Cxx - I am not going to discuss the adv. / disadv.
of either treatment, just make sure you are on the same page as your p.

One thing is certain - I dont want to play 1Cxx, and I have a major,
hence I am going to show the major.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#12 User is offline   jules101 

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Posted 2011-June-07, 04:45

Thanks all.

My choice was also 1.

I thought I'd bid my major, and if pard happened to double again I could always show him my lovely suit. :rolleyes:

My much more experienced pard suggested I should have passed, because bidding showed a 5+ card suit.

I have to say I'd not heard that before. On the contrary I've been advised in the past that it is important to show preference if I have any rather than leave pard in the dark. I just wanted to check out whether my action here was flawed. [I suffered from much flawed thinking!]

Thanks again for your thoughts and you explanations for your choices.
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#13 User is offline   nige1 

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Posted 2011-June-07, 19:07

IMO 1 = 10, 1 = 9. _P = 8.
Without the redouble you would bid 1 but now you are guaranteed another chance to bid,
so you may as well indicate the lead that you prefer, in an economical way.
At the one or two-level, over opponent's (or partner's) hearts you may elect to mention spades

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#14 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2011-June-08, 00:12

The downside of 1D is, that this may make it hard to show the spade suit,
e.g. if they located their fit.
Just because of the XX - I wont stop competing for the part score, if I
have a 8 card fit and the chance to play this on the 2 level.

I know, the king of clubs is badly placed, but ... oh well.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#15 User is offline   Lurpoa 

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Posted 2011-June-08, 00:34

View Postjules101, on 2011-June-06, 19:45, said:



Do you pass or bid?

Please explain why you chose your action?



1, indicating a safe haven.
Partner must be: 4441, 4540, 5440, 4432... unless the redouble is not "correct" and he is very strong with probably

Possibly 3442... which suits us less.......but....you cannot have it all....

Bob Herreman
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#16 User is offline   mgoetze 

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Posted 2011-June-08, 03:34

View PostLurpoa, on 2011-June-08, 00:34, said:

Partner must be: 4441, 4540, 5440, 4432...


I predict that there are some surprises ahead of you.
"One of the painful things about our time is that those who feel certainty are stupid, and those with any imagination and understanding are filled with doubt and indecision"
    -- Bertrand Russell
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#17 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2011-June-08, 04:32

View Postnigel_k, on 2011-June-06, 21:44, said:

Pass.

I would have bid 1 without the redouble but I don't see any reason to introduce 9xxx when I don't need to and I have another place to play. Pass is easy, textbook, mandatory, and doesn't cause any problem for partner that I can see.

But if you pull 1 to 1, aren't you showing a stronger hand? I think it was in Bergen's "Points, Schmoints" that I read that pass-and-pull is the only way to show strength in this situation.
The world would be such a happy place, if only everyone played Acol :) --- TramTicket
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#18 User is online   paulg 

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Posted 2011-June-08, 05:35

View Postmgoetze, on 2011-June-08, 03:34, said:

View PostLurpoa, on 2011-June-08, 00:34, said:

Partner must be: 4441, 4540, 5440, 4432...

I predict that there are some surprises ahead of you.

Poster is from the land of the 'Aberdeen Double', namely three cards in every other suit and four cards in the one opened.
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#19 User is offline   Lurpoa 

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Posted 2011-June-08, 06:32

View Postpaulg, on 2011-June-08, 05:35, said:

Poster is from the land of the 'Aberdeen Double', namely three cards in every other suit and four cards in the one opened.





Yes, but not my partner, not even on a 1 opener.... !!!
Bob Herreman
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#20 User is offline   VM1973 

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Posted 2011-June-08, 09:31

I think 1 is pretty automatic. As for pass and pull to show strength... how much strength could you really have? Even assuming that the opener has 5-5 or 6-4 and only 10 HCPs and your partner has a 4-4-4-1 with 10HCP for sure the redoubler has 10+ HCPs. That means you can only have, best-case scenario 10 HCPs. Anyway you're a passed hand - how much could you have? Chances are excellent that you're outgunned on this auction. I have sympathy for those who would psyche 1 and that might be a winning action white against red, but vulnerable it's unthinkable. As for bidding 1 as a lead director... I'm not sure I want diamonds led.
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