awm, on Sep 6 2005, 07:57 PM, said:
I think the issue is more what the odds are given the bid, than given the hand. For example, it might be that I would always open 1NT in third seat holding:
Kxx
x
KQJTxxx
xx
That, in itself, may not be a problem. The question is, given that I opened 1NT in third seat, what are the odds that I actually have our normal agreement (15-17 balanced). It seems like there are issues if any of:
(1) There is a substantial probability, say more than 1%, that I do NOT have the agreed hand.
(2) Partner bids in such a way, as to give me extra leeway in case I do not have the agreed hand.
(3) Our methods permit us, in a non-competitive auction, to check back in some way for a non-agreed hand.
So even if I would always psych certain hands, as long as every bid I can make is "almost always" systemic, and we have no special agreements (or special actions taken by partner) to protect a possible psych, there shouldn't be a problem.
Kxx
x
KQJTxxx
xx
That, in itself, may not be a problem. The question is, given that I opened 1NT in third seat, what are the odds that I actually have our normal agreement (15-17 balanced). It seems like there are issues if any of:
(1) There is a substantial probability, say more than 1%, that I do NOT have the agreed hand.
(2) Partner bids in such a way, as to give me extra leeway in case I do not have the agreed hand.
(3) Our methods permit us, in a non-competitive auction, to check back in some way for a non-agreed hand.
So even if I would always psych certain hands, as long as every bid I can make is "almost always" systemic, and we have no special agreements (or special actions taken by partner) to protect a possible psych, there shouldn't be a problem.
Assuming partner always bids and plays as if I had a 15-17 NT (until it becomes obvious that I don't) why does it matter how often I might have the "psyching" hand?
Eric

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