2/1 Gameforcing Good enough?
#1
Posted 2005-July-18, 16:30
You are playing that 2H is 100% GF, and 1NT is 100% forcing. Would you bid 1NT or 2H?
Other options are not available.
- hrothgar
#2
Posted 2005-July-18, 16:31
- hrothgar
#3
Posted 2005-July-18, 16:37
#4
Posted 2005-July-18, 16:53
Would I open the hand with a 1-bid? Yes. Therefore, imo, it's good enough for a 2/1. If I bid 1NT, can I ever catch up with this 4 to 5 loser hand? Doubt it.
#5
Posted 2005-July-18, 16:54
I would bid 3♥ in my system and sit back and let partner guess last. But vul at imps, I would force to game with this hand.
#6
Posted 2005-July-18, 17:01
If you were the dealer or if the person on your right opened the bidding, would you consider it outrageous to bid 4H? I certainly wouldn't.
So if you are willing to take a chance on game under those circumstances, why not do the same when your partner opens (and will therefore usually have enough useful high cards so that 4H will have a chance)?
Besides that, you have a strange hand. Do you really think you are going to be able to have a delicate invitational auction that will allow your partnership to judge accurately between 3H and 4H?
I think it is 100% clear to force to game on this hand and I strongly suspect that almost all "world class" players would agree with this opinion.
Another reason to force to game is that you might have a slam. It will be hard for partner to picture a hand with this playing strength if you fail to make a 2/1.
Fred Gitelman
Bridge Base Inc.
www.bridgebase.com
#8
Posted 2005-July-18, 18:20
Imps is a game for bidders, and an even better game for confident bidders. Even if you play 3♥ invitational, which I have reluctantly done with some players, this is not the hand he expects.
It has significantly more playing strength than an invitational hand ought to hold. If he raises to game hoping for this hand, you will score a lot of minuses on more typical holdings!
And of course, partner has not promised short ♣. Explain missing 7♣ opposite AQxxx x Ax AJxxx.... and be honest about it... maybe you'd reach it on paper, but not in real life.
So 2♥, happily and with confidence
#9
Posted 2005-July-18, 22:48
#10
Posted 2005-July-18, 23:09
#11
Posted 2005-July-18, 23:10
#12
Posted 2005-July-18, 23:25
keylime, on Jul 19 2005, 12:10 AM, said:
excellent point.....
Is our hand worth a game force opp most 11-13 junky hands..
I say yes...
1) may be cold
2) may make against non 100% defense.
3) may make against non 70% defense.
4) may make against 33% defense.
#13
Posted 2005-July-19, 02:10
I have never played a forcing 1NT response to 1 major, so I don't know how it works.
What does it mean to respond 1NT, and then drive to game? Is that a way of showing a game force lacking in high cards?
#14
Posted 2005-July-19, 02:19
This is a full opening hand (wouldn't you open 1st/2nd seat?).
Sure, we may end up in one of those hopeless 22 count games, but, oh well, it happens, and in any case we do have a suit to avoid 3NT in misfit and lack of high cards :-)
The hand complies both with distributional strength required for an opener AND has 2 defensive tricks, so I cannot see why we should go via 1NT forcing (a terrible way to go when we have unbalanced hands- if we have an alternative, that is...).
The 1NT response is a "least of evils" resource, to clean up the 2/1 response from invitational hands, but, "per se", it's quite a troublesome catchall bid.
If I bid 1NT and they preempt to 3/4m, I'd much rather prefer I had shown my shape and values with 2H.
#15
Posted 2005-July-19, 02:25
FrancesHinden, on Jul 19 2005, 03:10 AM, said:
I have never played a forcing 1NT response to 1 major, so I don't know how it works.
What does it mean to respond 1NT, and then drive to game? Is that a way of showing a game force lacking in high cards?
Yes.
A couple of ways to play forcing no trump
1) drive to game based on upgrade of partners rebid
2) drive to game based on minimum LTC and not HCP.
3) rare but ..drive to game based on non system rebid but decent HCP and shape.
Please note all of this is a bit risky if playing semi-forcing nt where pard will pass with junky 5332 and junky 11-12 hcp.
#16
Posted 2005-July-19, 09:13
Echognome, on Jul 18 2005, 11:48 PM, said:
That was sheer genius Matt, bidding 1NT hoping that they would psych in your 7-card suit!
- hrothgar
#17
Posted 2005-July-19, 09:31
mike777, on Jul 19 2005, 03:25 AM, said:
FrancesHinden, on Jul 19 2005, 03:10 AM, said:
I have never played a forcing 1NT response to 1 major, so I don't know how it works.
What does it mean to respond 1NT, and then drive to game? Is that a way of showing a game force lacking in high cards?
Yes.
A couple of ways to play forcing no trump
1) drive to game based on upgrade of partners rebid
2) drive to game based on minimum LTC and not HCP.
3) rare but ..drive to game based on non system rebid but decent HCP and shape.
Please note all of this is a bit risky if playing semi-forcing nt where pard will pass with junky 5332 and junky 11-12 hcp.
I play semi-forcing NT quite frequently; but one fundamental principle is that the 1NT response does not include any hand that wants to play in game opposite a minimum (unless you hit a big fit).
Playing forcing NT seems a whole different kettle of fish, as now you can decide whether to respond 1NT or 2H and in either case be sure of reaching game.
#18
Posted 2005-July-19, 09:49
(And that only against 1st,2nd seat openers as you'd use Drury 2♣ for a 3card limit raise with a passed hand)
Under these conditions it is safe to play 1NT as semiforcing - i.e. a player that would not want to play a game against the above may pass. He will hardly pass with any good rebid available (6 spades, side 4card) - so it is really safe even with some spade support.
The only problem hands are long suits of your own - where you might expect a game on 22 HCP. A good workaround is to bid 2/1 as either GF or 9-11 HCP with a good 6card.
(Good meaning that if partner has doubleton honor, you have 6 tricks in NT, if partner has a small doubleton, you're willing to play at 4t level in your suit.)
If the immediate rebid by responder is the 2/1 suit, it shows this type of hand - and p will pass or offer a game contract.
#19
Posted 2005-July-19, 10:02
coyot, on Jul 19 2005, 10:49 AM, said:
(Good meaning that if partner has doubleton honor, you have 6 tricks in NT, if partner has a small doubleton, you're willing to play at 4t level in your suit.)
If the immediate rebid by responder is the 2/1 suit, it shows this type of hand - and p will pass or offer a game contract.
This is how Bridge World Standard plays it. Personally, I don't like it. One big benefit of playing 2/1 is that I can have the auction such as 1S-2D-2S-3D to show a very good diamond suit and a strong hand. If 3D is non-forcing here, then I have to invent something after 1S-2D-2S and I've lost half the benefit of playing 2/1 in the first place.
So if I were to play forcing 1NT I assume I can respond 1NT safely, and this is a clear advantage of the method.
Playing SF 1NT I either play invitational jumps (I usually play 1S-3H invitational as the type of hand you describe) or respond 1NT and hope for the best.
#20
Posted 2005-July-19, 10:06
FrancesHinden, on Jul 19 2005, 04:02 PM, said:
coyot, on Jul 19 2005, 10:49 AM, said:
(Good meaning that if partner has doubleton honor, you have 6 tricks in NT, if partner has a small doubleton, you're willing to play at 4t level in your suit.)
If the immediate rebid by responder is the 2/1 suit, it shows this type of hand - and p will pass or offer a game contract.
This is how Bridge World Standard plays it. Personally, I don't like it. One big benefit of playing 2/1 is that I can have the auction such as 1S-2D-2S-3D to show a very good diamond suit and a strong hand. If 3D is non-forcing here, then I have to invent something after 1S-2D-2S and I've lost half the benefit of playing 2/1 in the first place.
Ditto.
the big advantage of playing 2/1 is to set a GF early without having to force with cumbersome bids.
Resorting to "quasi/GF" means losing 75% of this advantage

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