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5Ds or 3NT? Miffed to go 1down

Poll: Your final contract? (8 member(s) have cast votes)

Your contract

  1. 3NT (4 votes [50.00%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 50.00%

  2. 4H (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

  3. 4S (1 votes [12.50%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 12.50%

  4. 4D (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

  5. 5D (3 votes [37.50%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 37.50%

  6. Other (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

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#1 User is online   mw64ahw 

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Posted 2023-January-16, 03:42

A simple auction (IMPS) opponents silent throughout
2 is GI 5+
3 is 5 GF

NB: the poll is asking for your final contract
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#2 User is offline   ali quarg 

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Posted 2023-January-16, 09:14

I expect North to bid 3NT and wouldn't want to miss the potential slam so 4 would be my South bid ending in 5/6. Having the void in is also a potential warning sign opposite a minimal responder
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#3 User is online   DavidKok 

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Posted 2023-January-16, 09:21

South doesn't have another bid over 3NT. Partner is announcing a misfit and we've bid on shape, not strength.
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#4 User is offline   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2023-January-16, 09:46

View PostDavidKok, on 2023-January-16, 09:21, said:

South doesn't have another bid over 3NT. Partner is announcing a misfit and we've bid on shape, not strength.


On another day, N has x, K, AQxxxx, QJxx (add another card somewhere) which he isn't exactly going to evaluate as gold dust, your Kxx is a really good holding he doesn't know about, and suggest it's not the misfit he thinks it is
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#5 User is online   DavidKok 

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Posted 2023-January-16, 09:58

Yes, that's one of the downsides of playing 2 as 10+. You have to jump on hands that have multiple things to contibute, and cut into your own slam investigation. On a third day North has x, xx, ATxxx, KQJxx and you get to explain why you thought your hand was worth another bid even after deciding you are worth a GF opposite a 10-count and then hearing of the misfit. I think not seeking a sharp slam is the least of evils here, you are fixed by the systemic jump on the second round.

Speaking of, what's the downside to bidding 2 instead of 3?
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#6 User is offline   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2023-January-16, 10:12

View PostDavidKok, on 2023-January-16, 09:58, said:

Yes, that's one of the downsides of playing 2 as 10+. You have to jump on hands that have multiple things to contibute, and cut into your own slam investigation. On a third day North has x, xx, ATxxx, KQJxx and you get to explain why you thought your hand was worth another bid even after deciding you are worth a GF opposite a 10-count and then hearing of the misfit. I think not seeking a sharp slam is the least of evils here, you are fixed by the systemic jump on the second round.

Speaking of, what's the downside to bidding 2 instead of 3?


We would bid 3 but it wouldn't actually be forcing and would show this hand type 2 decent 5 card suits, but not a great hand, and would deny the ability to bid 2N (GF not necessarily bal).

For most people 2 would be perfectly acceptable.
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#7 User is offline   ali quarg 

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Posted 2023-January-16, 10:19

View PostDavidKok, on 2023-January-16, 09:58, said:

Speaking of, what's the downside to bidding 2 instead of 3?

If you bid 2 as natural then GI/GF is ambiguous. You get a 2/2NT response. That leaves South showing their 5!H and needing to force to game which may not be the case if North takes this as Pass/Correct rather than GF bid.
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#8 User is online   DavidKok 

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Posted 2023-January-16, 10:32

I was intending to bid 3, so 1-2; 2-2NT; 3. If 2NT is NF then 3 logically shows extras and is therefore GF. This way I show (approximately) a 5=4=3=1, but partner can now give preference to hearts on a 3-card suit so the 5-3 fit is not lost. We've also shown some extras and have no further reason to doubt partner's possible 3NT over 3.
That being said I don't play this system, so maybe my expectations are completely off.
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#9 User is online   mw64ahw 

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Posted 2023-January-16, 10:53

View PostDavidKok, on 2023-January-16, 10:32, said:

I was intending to bid 3, so 1-2; 2-2NT; 3. If 2NT is NF then 3 logically shows extras and is therefore GF. This way I show (approximately) a 5=4=3=1, but partner can now give preference to hearts on a 3-card suit so the 5-3 fit is not lost. We've also shown some extras and have no further reason to doubt partner's possible 3NT over 3.
That being said I don't play this system, so maybe my expectations are completely off.

3 for me is no extras and a preference to play there rather than 2NT so a 5431 distribution
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#10 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2023-January-16, 11:33

View Postali quarg, on 2023-January-16, 10:19, said:

If you bid 2 as natural then GI/GF is ambiguous. You get a 2/2NT response. That leaves South showing their 5!H and needing to force to game which may not be the case if North takes this as Pass/Correct rather than GF bid.

Justin Lall's "Good convention" may apply here, though.
https://csbnews.org/...by-justin-lall/
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#11 User is offline   mikeh 

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Posted 2023-January-16, 12:02

View Posthelene_t, on 2023-January-16, 11:33, said:

Justin Lall's "Good convention" may apply here, though.
https://csbnews.org/...by-justin-lall/

Personally, I think that playing transfers over 2N is superior. Justin’s convention means that with 5=4=4=0, after 1S 2C 2H 2N opener can’t show diamonds,yet the hand could easily belong on diamonds, since responder will often hold 4 of them.
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#12 User is offline   mikeh 

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Posted 2023-January-16, 12:04

View Postmw64ahw, on 2023-January-16, 10:53, said:

3 for me is no extras and a preference to play there rather than 2NT so a 5431 distribution

One of the downsides to playing that 2D was not game force. Of course, playing 2/1, we might never find the diamond fit

1S 1N 2H 2N 3D is possible but I suspect most would bid 3H and have north bid 3S.
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#13 User is online   mw64ahw 

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Posted 2023-January-16, 12:26

View Postmikeh, on 2023-January-16, 12:02, said:

Personally, I think that playing transfers over 2N is superior. Justin's convention means that with 5=4=4=0, after 1S 2C 2H 2N opener can't show diamonds,yet the hand could easily belong on diamonds, since responder will often hold 4 of them.

Good idea - maybe one I'll adopt in a similar fashion
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#14 User is offline   mikeh 

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Posted 2023-January-16, 14:32

View Postmw64ahw, on 2023-January-16, 12:26, said:

Good idea - maybe one I'll adopt in a similar fashion

It can be used in almost all sequences in which 2N is a natural invitation

1M 1N 2N transfers. 1S 1N 2N 3S shows clubs with interest beyond 3N should opener have decent clubs and some reason to want to cooperate (usually a tenuous holding in a side suit).

1M 1N 2C 2N. 3C has to be natural, so no transfers

1M 1N 2D 2N. 3C is a transfer. Opener may have a weak 5-5, intending to pass next, or a gf hand about to look for the best strain.

1S 1N 2D 2N 3D shows 5341, since responder may have 5 hearts.

1C 1S 2N. Transfers are on here. 3S would be clubs (obviously some memory issues arise), but opener only bypasses 3N with a good hand for clubs, within the context of the auction so far. Note that responder can pull 3N to show slam interest despite opener’s regressive bid


Transfers are under-utilized, in my view, by the great majority of players. Yes, they impose some memory demands but once internalized they are flexible and powerful.
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