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Rusty

#1 User is offline   Deanrover 

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Posted 2005-June-15, 21:31

Indy tourney. Imps. Red v. white :)

Qxxx
J98xx
K
QJx

You pass, p opens 1 ♦ and rebids 2 ♣, what is my move now?
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#2 Guest_Jlall_*

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Posted 2005-June-15, 21:41

pass. You could obviously have a game but any bid is an overbid by alot. I think pass is percentage.
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#3 User is offline   fifee 

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Posted 2005-June-15, 22:18

Qxxx
J98xx
K
QJx

If partner opens 1D, do you respond before he rebids 2C?

I would envision this auction going:
1D p 1H p
2C p p

Cannot bid 2S, because this is game forcing (reverse by responder).
Cannot bid 2NT because for me this shows 11-12 HCP (BBO Advanced defines 2NT as 10-12HCP).
H not good enough to rebid, but if I had 6H or better texture, I would.

So I would pass 2C by my partner.
Lord, help me choose the words I use and make them short and sweet.
We never know from day to day which ones we'll have to eat.
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#4 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2005-June-15, 23:38

Pass, partner won't have a 3 card ♥ support, so playing a 4-3 fit is just fine...
"It may be rude to leave to go to the bathroom, but it's downright stupid to sit there and piss yourself" - blackshoe
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#5 User is offline   Chamaco 

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Posted 2005-June-16, 02:27

How is this problem solved by the (many) BBForum posters who use 2 clubs rebid by opener as 1R force ?

If 2C is NF, I think pass stands out, but if 2C is 1RF, where shall we end ?
"Bridge is like dance: technique's important but what really matters is not to step on partner's feet !"
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#6 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2005-June-16, 03:08

Chamaco, on Jun 16 2005, 09:27 AM, said:

How is this problem solved by the (many) BBForum posters who use 2 clubs rebid by opener as 1R force ?

If 2C is NF, I think pass stands out, but if 2C is 1RF, where shall we end ?

Why would 2♣ be forcing??? :D

The situation is completely different after an auction like 1♠-2♣;2♥...
"It may be rude to leave to go to the bathroom, but it's downright stupid to sit there and piss yourself" - blackshoe
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#7 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2005-June-16, 03:54

Hi,

I think, I will pass, if there ever was a hand for
downgrading, this hand qualifies.

Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#8 User is offline   joker_gib 

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Posted 2005-June-16, 04:24

Pass also but in my partnership I would have bid 2♥ on 1♦ showing 5♥ 4♠ 8-10 .


Alain
Alain
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#9 User is offline   MickyB 

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Posted 2005-June-16, 04:53

Free, on Jun 16 2005, 10:08 AM, said:

Why would 2♣ be forcing??? :D

The situation is completely different after an auction like 1♠-2♣;2♥...

Or even 1♦:1♥, 1♠ which some play as forcing.
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#10 User is offline   Echognome 

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Posted 2005-June-16, 05:58

fifee, on Jun 16 2005, 05:18 AM, said:

<snip> Cannot bid 2S, because this is game forcing (reverse by responder).  <snip>

I would pass as well. However, I did want to mention that 2♠ is neither a reverse, nor is it game forcing. It cannot be a reverse since it's fourth suit (non?) forcing. It cannot be game forcing or even forcing as responder is a PASSED HAND.

I do believe there is some risk in passing as opener may have up to a 16 or 17 count and no better bid. He may even be 1354, but that doesn't seem to be likely. My guess is if we have a game, it's in 3NT. However, I cannot really risk bidding on and I'm happy to play in our 43 fit. If I were 12 in the minors instead, I would be bidding 2♦ as false preference and seeing if opener had anything more to say.
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#11 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2005-June-16, 06:03

Pass, I don't see the problem.
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#12 User is offline   bearmum 

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Posted 2005-June-16, 06:15

Deanrover, on Jun 16 2005, 04:31 PM, said:

Indy tourney. Imps. Red v. white :(

Qxxx
J98xx
K
QJx

You pass, p opens 1 ♦ and rebids 2 ♣, what is my move now?

since 2♣ here is NF I PASS :ph34r:
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#13 User is offline   inquiry 

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Posted 2005-June-16, 06:54

Chamaco, on Jun 16 2005, 04:27 AM, said:

How is this problem solved by the (many) BBForum posters who use 2 clubs rebid by opener as 1R force ?

If 2C is NF, I think pass stands out, but if 2C is 1RF, where shall we end ?

With some partners, I use 2♣ as one round 'force" (it can be passed but only with a highly improbable hand.... this isn't one of them.

The way I play 2♣ "force" it shows one of a couple hand types.

1) Strong diamond one suiter (will rebid 3♦
2) Balanced 18-19 (will rebid 2NT).. an immediate 2NT would be great heart support
3) An intermediate to good minor two suiter (not stong enough for Misho's transfer preempt with a strong two suiter)
4) good 15+ hcp and up with three card support generally with clubs (else would open 1NT or jump rebid 3♦ which shows six cars suit and three card heart support.

Hands that are not possible are 3-1-4-5 and 3-1-5-4 and weak (would rebid 1NT), not x-y-5-5 and weak (would rebid 3♣, not 2-2-4-5 or 2-2-5-4 (would rebid 1NT or open 1NT).

Here my rebid would be 2♠ - showing some values, but not game force. IF partner rebids 2NT (18-19), I will bid 3NT. If partner rebids 3♦ (strong diamond one suiter), I have a problem, but at imps, I would try 3NT based upon my diamond king. If partner rebids 3♣ (minor two suiter, good values), I would pass. If partner bids 3♥, I would bid 4♥.

OF course, playing 2♣ as forcing, the rebid with the hand dean had in mind would never have been 2♣. More than likley it would have been 1NT or 3♣ (both weak). I would pass both of those bids with this hand. Also, not playing this esoteric method that I do, over a 2♣ rebid in an individual, I would pass.

Ben
--Ben--

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