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Bidding at a high level having passed initially

#1 User is offline   MickyB 

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Posted 2005-June-05, 06:54

Jilly's 6-5 topic got me wondering - what does an auction like

P-1-P-3, 3

show - without discussion (expert p), or in your preferred methods?
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#2 User is offline   pbleighton 

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Posted 2005-June-05, 07:02

A good 3S opener, or maybe a little better.

Peter
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#3 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2005-June-05, 07:22

I have spades, I don't have balanced hand, and if you have singleton you can be sure we better play in a minor.
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#4 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2005-June-05, 07:24

pbleighton, on Jun 5 2005, 01:02 PM, said:

A good 3S opener, or maybe a little better.

Peter

Althou it is not very clear, the problem comes when you are passed hand Peter.
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#5 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2005-June-05, 07:33

MickyB, on Jun 5 2005, 12:54 PM, said:

Jilly's 6-5 topic got me wondering - what does an auction like

P-1-P-3, 3

show - without discussion (expert p), or in your preferred methods?

In my partnership that's a 2-suiter spades + minor. Cannot be 1-suiter because we always open those regardless of suit quality...
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#6 User is offline   MickyB 

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Posted 2005-June-05, 07:58

Ok thanks for the replies so far.

I gave this question to a player I respect, and his opinion was that 6-5s are often best off opening a weak 2 and making another move later. Obviously this diverges from conventional wisdom. Any comments?

When people are saying two suiters, what counts? 6-4, 5-5, 5-6?

Any suggestions as to how an agreement to cover this situation could be phrased? Something like, "A passed hand opposite a passing partner bidding a new suit at the 3 level without jumping"?

Cheers!
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#7 User is offline   Winstonm 

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Posted 2005-June-05, 11:47

At imps, this sequence to me shows an opening 2S/3S preempt that was in some way "flawed", and for me the biggest flaw would be a void and some defensive potential and less (under my methods) than an opening hand. I would expect partner to have: KJ9xxx(x), void, Axx(x), xxx or along those lines.

At MPs, it could be darn near anything provided the 3H is preemptive. :)

WinstonM
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#8 Guest_Jlall_*

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Posted 2005-June-05, 14:06

This is a very good question. Alot depends on partnership style.

First is a hand like JTxxxxx --- Kxxx Kx a preempt? If not, maybe it is a hand like this. As you said a hand flawed for a preempt.

If you preempt most hands with 6 or 7 spades then it is probably more useful to play it as 5-5 or 6-5. This is how I like to play it, as I think it is more frequent. Any agreement is a good one here, but most partnerships dont have one.
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#9 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2005-June-05, 17:50

MickyB, on Jun 5 2005, 01:58 PM, said:

I gave this question to a player I respect, and his opinion was that 6-5s are often best off opening a weak 2 and making another move later. Obviously this diverges from conventional wisdom. Any comments?

2 weeks ago I got this auction:

2-ps-ps-3NT
4-ps-4-X
ps-ps-ps

And I got -690 Because the opener was having a 6-7 :P
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#10 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2005-June-05, 18:00

Jlall, on Jun 5 2005, 08:06 PM, said:

If you preempt most hands with 6 or 7 spades then it is probably more useful to play it as 5-5 or 6-5. This is how I like to play it, as I think it is more frequent. Any agreement is a good one here, but most partnerships dont have one.

Having an agreement is very nice, but actually you don't need one, with a pickup partner on BBO being south, I got recently something like...:

xx
AQxx
KJxx
Qxx

N - E - S -W
ps -ps -1 -1NT
2 -ps -???

I assumed he was having 5 and a scape somewhere wich surelly was . Probably 2NT or 3 was a better bid in case it is s the other suit, but we played a decent 3 on a 4-4 fit if I remember correctly.
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#11 Guest_Jlall_*

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Posted 2005-June-05, 19:21

But if there are some hands with 6-7 spades that partner will pass, then I don't think you can pull to 3D. besides why cant he have a black 2 suiter.
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#12 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2005-June-06, 08:22

He couldn't,. and I now beleive 3 was a mistake. But pulling wasn't.
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#13 User is offline   FrancesHinden 

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Posted 2005-June-06, 10:27

MickyB, on Jun 5 2005, 08:58 AM, said:

I gave this question to a player I respect, and his opinion was that 6-5s are often best off opening a weak 2 and making another move later. Obviously this diverges from conventional wisdom. Any comments?

One swallow doesn't make a summer, but at the recent English Spring Bank Holiday Swiss Teams, one player was dealt

AQ9xxx
-
xx
10xxxx

in first seat, vul against not.
At every table where I saw the result except one (7 tables) this was opened a weak 2S, passed out, scoring +200 when spades were 3-3.

My partner passed, and we then had a swift auction to 5C for +600 (6C had play), as I held

K
xxxx
Axxx
AQJx
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#14 Guest_Jlall_*

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Posted 2005-June-06, 15:03

With 6-5 I tend to pass, but admit with the hand posted above i would open 3S since all my values are in spades. I would never open 2 though.
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