in this month's bulletin, someone wrote billy miller with a question regarding who should have bid the hearts... his answer was correct but it triggered a question in my mind... when opener can bid 1nt after interference, are ckback or xyz still on?
say it goes 1c (1d) 1h (p) 1nt or 1d (p) 1h (1s) 1nt... how do most of you play this? for what it's worth, here are the hands the writer asked about
♠Q
♥K952
♦KT654
♣QJT
♠KJT
♥A874
♦32
♣A852
south dealt, bidding was 1c (p) 1d (1s) 1nt (p) 3nt ... 3nt was down and 4h made, the writer (south) asked who should have mentioned the hearts... playing standard 2/1, north should (he has what used to be called a responsive reverse)
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2 way ckback/xyz
#1
Posted 2005-April-08, 17:09
"Paul Krugman is a stupid person's idea of what a smart person sounds like." Newt Gingrich (paraphrased)
#3
Posted 2005-April-08, 18:09
good, i was thinking 2 way ckback should still be on also... makes this hand very easy, 2c/2d/ then 2h
"Paul Krugman is a stupid person's idea of what a smart person sounds like." Newt Gingrich (paraphrased)
#4
Posted 2005-April-08, 19:24
Why would it not be on if you've agreed to play it?
"That's my story, and I'm sticking to it!"
#5
Posted 2005-April-09, 01:36
Suppose in an unopposed auction you were playing two-way checkback so that 2♣ is a puppet to 2♦ (as a sign off in ♦ or invitational hand) and 2♦ is GF.
Then I think if the bidding starts eg 1♣ (P) 1♦ (1♠) 1NT, you should alter your structure as you have two new sequences:- the direct cue-bid and the indirect cue-bid (i.e. 2♣ followed by 2♠).
What exactly you should play them as is up to you, but it seems sub-optimal not to put them to some use.
Eric
Then I think if the bidding starts eg 1♣ (P) 1♦ (1♠) 1NT, you should alter your structure as you have two new sequences:- the direct cue-bid and the indirect cue-bid (i.e. 2♣ followed by 2♠).
What exactly you should play them as is up to you, but it seems sub-optimal not to put them to some use.
Eric
#6
Posted 2005-April-09, 03:18
I didn't think checkback would apply here if you play Walsh style since
1C 1D denies a 4 card major without game forcing values?
Therefore
1C 1D 1NT 2H/S is natural and game forcing.
1C 1D denies a 4 card major without game forcing values?
Therefore
1C 1D 1NT 2H/S is natural and game forcing.
#7
Posted 2005-April-09, 06:25
North doesn't have GF values so he should start with just 1♥ instead of 1♦.
#8
Posted 2005-April-09, 08:24
the way i learned, when responder first bids 1d then 2h (or 2s) after opener's nt rebid, it isn't necessarily game forcing... it shows a good hand, yes, but the example hand definitely falls in that range...
with <9/10 hcp, unless the dist was wild, i'd always show the major first (playing walsh)
with <9/10 hcp, unless the dist was wild, i'd always show the major first (playing walsh)
"Paul Krugman is a stupid person's idea of what a smart person sounds like." Newt Gingrich (paraphrased)
#9
Posted 2005-April-09, 17:37
I follow a simple rule. Every time our side is able to bid 1x 1y ; 1NT (with or without interference), check back is on.
Roland
Roland
It's nice to be important, but it's more important to be nice
#10
Posted 2005-April-09, 20:00
mr1303, on Apr 9 2005, 01:18 AM, said:
I didn't think checkback would apply here if you play Walsh style since
1C 1D denies a 4 card major without game forcing values?
Therefore
1C 1D 1NT 2H/S is natural and game forcing.
1C 1D denies a 4 card major without game forcing values?
Therefore
1C 1D 1NT 2H/S is natural and game forcing.
Playing xyz with walsh, there isn't a lot of reason to play the reverse by responder as game forcing. It can easily played as invitational. Even then for us, just about all invitational hands with a 4 card major go through 2♣ first. ♠Ax ♥KQxx ♦Qxxxx ♣xx is bid 1♣ - 1♦ - 1N - 2♣ - 2♦ - 2♥.
So, the sequence 1♣ - 1♦ - 1N - 2 major becomes an invitational raise to 2N with a fragment in the suit bid: ♠xxx ♥KQx ♦AQxxx ♣xx.
"Phil" on BBO
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