[Bbradley62]

15 of 17 Souths in this IMP Robodupe bid 1♠, although this bid is too little...

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One chose 2♠, although this bid is too much (the spades are not "twice rebiddable" per GIB's definition)...

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Is there a bid for South that is just right in GIB's system?

[iandayre]

No, there is no great bid with this hand for GIB or anyone (including myself) who plays new suit advances after partner's overcall as constructive but NF. At MP I would probably bid 1S with GIB, but 2S with a human partner. GIB would be too likely to raise 2S with a singleton. But at IMPS I'd have to try 2S with GIB also and hope for the best.

[1eyedjack]

Am I out of the mainstream in thinking that it is more standard for a new suit by a non-passed hand opposite an overcall to be a one-bid force?

Sure, by all means leave it as non-forcing by a passed hand.

On the plus side, it would make for a much simpler system.

On the minus side, you could get one level too high on hands where you wanted to non-force AND overcaller had a hand suitable for passing a non-forcing advance.

Netting the two off, as a GIB programmer I would have opted for the forcing option - unless it is one used by such a minority of players that it would be unpopular.

[Bbradley62]

1eyedjack, on 2015-February-14, 16:21, said:

Am I out of the mainstream in thinking that it is more standard for a new suit by a non-passed hand opposite an overcall to be a one-bid force?

Sure, by all means leave it as non-forcing by a passed hand.

Apparently, 15 of the 17 of us thought it should be F1... but I haven't played f2f duplicate in so long that I cannot pretend to even know what is mainstream/standard these days.

[Stephen Tu]

Over here I think non-forcing advances are more common. But North ought to raise with spade fit fairly lightly IMO.

[cloa513]

How about 2♦- which should definitely be one round forcing- generally choosing 1NT for good but not moderately strong hands. After a 2♥ rebid then 2S should be more invitational.

[1eyedjack]

What rules determine that 2D is F but 1S not?

I expected that 2C is the first bid on most(?) forcing hands (when not playing transfers)

[Bbradley62]

1eyedjack, on 2015-February-15, 02:31, said:

I expected that 2C is the first bid on most(?) forcing hands (when not playing transfers)

Would GIB think 2♣ shows heart support?

[1eyedjack]

Bbradley62, on 2015-February-15, 06:14, said:

Would GIB think 2♣ shows heart support?

That would be my normal understanding (assuming not transfer). But my normal understanding is that a new suit was forcing. Somewhere you have to be able to make a forcing bid that does not promise support.

[Stephen Tu]

It would be odd to play 2♦ as forcing but 1♠ as not IMO. If anything, I think people are more likely to play 1♠ as forcing and 2♦ as non-forcing, as 1nt is still relatively low as a resting spot with no fit. When partner is allowed to overcall light at the 1-level on a 7 count, you don't necessarily want him to be forced to bid again.

People who play non-forcing new suits either use cue-bid to start a forcing sequence (not guaranteeing support), or use jump in a new suit as forcing.

[cloa513]

1eyedjack, on 2015-February-15, 02:31, said:

What rules determine that 2D is F but 1S not?

I expected that 2C is the first bid on most(?) forcing hands (when not playing transfers)

The limits of how long in values that you bid 1♥ bid- about 8HCP with a six card suit and possibly club values and length- all which makes a forcing bid that doesn't offer support really bad.