[uva72uva72]

My link

IMPS, ACBL robot individual

Three things are puzzling about this hand:

1. Why does North's cue bid promise only 4 clubs. It is forcing South to the 3-level, vulnerable, when South could well have only a 3-card suit.

2. Why does North use the cue bid, when it could bid 1NT? The latter is more descriptive and more likely to get to a makable game (such as 3NT). If South has the pronounced distribution that would make 5♣ a viable contract, he/she won't pass 1NT.

3. Having made the cue bid, why does North press on with its less-than-mediocre hand when partner says "no thanks?" A a result N-S end up playing 3NT because North didn't want to play 1NT. Unless, of course, North knows that ♣s are breaking 5-0.

[iandayre]

Points 1 and 2 are arguable. GIB's 1NT shows 6-9 and you have 10 and a nice fit. The cue isn't forcing to 3C as a non-forcing 2NT is available.

But you are certainly right about 3, and I find it surprising. GIB has no problem stopping in 3C after having made an inverted raise without competition, but in this equivalent auction it does not pass the 3C signoff. I don't get it.