We had this good auction.
East showed 5-7 pts, 3-2-5-3, 3 SPs (A=3, K=2, Q=1) no ♦ or ♥ honour, therefore ♠Q & ♣K.
All good but West waited anxiously for dummy to track, concerned that partner might have bid 2♠ on
♠QJx ♥xx ♦JTxxx ♣Qxx
That is, a hand with 6 HCP but only 2 SPs.
East-West must make a choice.
Either to miss the occasional perfect slam
or require responder to give the second negative (0-4) on all hands without 3 SPs.
It seems safe to bid 1♠ then catch up with 2 SPs.
It may be different with positives to 1♣, which we play as 8+ pts, nearly GF.
♠x ♥AQJxxx ♦JTxx ♣xx
is a positive but our base for Slam Points is 5.
4 SP positives are quite rare so you can't afford to set aside a step to show that strength.
Here you presumably show a positive then min, then hope relayer can cater for a slight lack of AKQs.
Balanced 8-counts can afford to start with a negative if sub-minimum in SPs.
♠Axxx ♥QJx ♦JTx ♣xxx
4 SPs so 1♦ looks better. Throw in ♠J and you give a positive and hope for the best. Is that right?
You can see opener bidding 6♠ (by you) with
♠KQxxx ♥xx ♦AKQxx ♣A
"knowing" your 5 SPs were ♠A and ♥K.
(OK, this ignore that opener might be able to ask for AK controls instead)
What's the correct approach?
Gamble or guess those slams?
Or underbid by giving more non-descriptive negatives that you'd like?