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Would you call the director Unauthorized information

Poll: What would you do... (25 member(s) have cast votes)

What would you do...

  1. There is nothing to call the director for.... (5 votes [20.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 20.00%

  2. Call director and complain about WEST's mis-descripton of bid (6 votes [24.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 24.00%

  3. Call director and complain about UI that occured (12 votes [48.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 48.00%

  4. Call the director and ask the board be thrown out (2 votes [8.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 8.00%

  5. No call, they don't know what their bids mean, we win anyway (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

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#21 User is offline   inquiry 

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Posted 2005-February-04, 06:05

Hannie, on Feb 4 2005, 02:03 AM, said:

Absolutely, there can be no other explanation for the pass.

By the way, given the bidding you can't have been south on this deal, correct?

I was south.. I do play precision, and KS, and Romex, and polish club (well played with malucy for a while), tryint NTC and a fw other. I have probably played more precision than any other system.,... it is just that I prefer light opene
--Ben--

#22 User is offline   TimG 

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Posted 2005-February-04, 08:34

inquiry, on Jan 13 2005, 07:00 PM, said:

You are playing a swiss team match when this hand comes up. You are south (hand not shown)....

Scoring: IMPS

1♦-( P)-1♥-(2♦)
Pas-(2♠)-ALL PASS

Partner leads ♦J (look at the T98 in dummy), ace wins....


Your 1♦ was "precison" and you alerted as showing 2+. West alerted EAST 2♦ and explained it as showing "Spades and clubs". The rest of the auction is as given.

What do you do?

If 2♠ is natural, is there a hand west can have that would not overcall 1♠ where game in spades would be good? Lots of them. ♠Jxxxx ♥xxxx ♦x ♣Qxx. One might question whether advancer should bid at all with this hand, yet game is darn good. So, it is certainly possible that west used UI when he passed 2♠.

The director ought to be called after the auction is over, right after east explains that there has been an incorrect explanation (if he believes there is no Michaels agreement). If he believes they are playing Michaels, but that he misbid, he has no obligation to say anything, but when dummy hits I would expect NS to call the director and explain what happened. It is not clear that NS have been damaged by East's use of the misinformation (didn't I read somewhere that EW made 5♦ at the other table). But, that's for the director to sort out after the situation has been explained to her.

Tim
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#23 User is offline   luis 

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Posted 2005-February-15, 08:29

This is my view:

First of all you must call the TD because there was an irregularity, West alerted something and East had something else so a call to the TD is quite automatic.
About a ruling I think it's obvious that there is an infraction since East passed 2s knowing that his pd is just bidding his best black suit, had thin been played with screens East would have surely bid something over 2s. This is one of the reasons why it's very important to ASK whenever an alert is made.
Now if I were asked to provide a ruling I think that it's irrelevant if East missbid or West missalerted, East intended 2d to be natural and after a 2s bid by his pd they should probably got to 4s now I should poll players of similar skills as North and South and without any alert or explanation ask them if they would have doubled or not 4s with the North and/or South cards. Then I would adjust the score according to the results of the poll.
Assuming 4s is down3 (he was down 1 in 2) if 50% of the players doubled then the result comes from averaging the imps won by 800 and 300 respectively.
I would also rule a procedural penalty on EW since East bid was based on what his pd explained about the alert.
The legend of the black octogon.
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#24 User is offline   pclayton 

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Posted 2005-February-15, 10:43

Totally agree with Ben.

East's has an obligation to make a strong move if East thought 2♦ is natural.

West's alert of 2♦ 'triggers' East that the 2♠ call may be a forced preference. East sees a port in the storm and passes 2♠ (good thing pard didn't bid 3♣!).

For those that have problems conceptualizing this issue, imagine if you were playing with screens and you can't hear partner's alert ( :) not unlike on-line). Would you timidly pass 2♠? Heck, I'd be making a SLAM try. I don't care about the idea that pard passed over 1♦. Many of us don't automatically overcall on 5 ratty spades and 10 points. A hand like: Jxxxx, xxxx, Kx, Ax gives us a play for 7.

If I was the director (or on a committee), I wouldn't accept less than the doubled penalty of 4♠ as the proper adjustment for E/W. Absolutely clear case of UI.

It gets a little murky if E/W can demonstrate that 2♦ IS conventional and somehow the alert doesn't trigger East (although I can't see how). Interestingly if E/W was playing with screens, and East passed 2♠, I think East could be given the benefit of the doubt.

Is the existence of West's 2♠ bid ALONE (i.e. without the benefit of the alert) enough to remind East that they have an agreement here? Curious question.
"Phil" on BBO
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#25 User is offline   jdulmage 

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Posted 2005-March-06, 22:39

The general law is:

"If they tell you the truth based on what they have AGREED upon, then they are just as damaged as the opponents are"

Director call unneeded.
Visit our website today at http://www.reginabridge.com for information on loads of conventions, our local club, and bridge hands.
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