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0355 vs 4 spades

#1 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2013-February-03, 04:21

MPs, nobody vul

♠-
♥1094
♦AKQ83
♣J7632


you are dealer, you can open 1♦ or pass, it will go

??-(2♠)-pass-(4♠)
??
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#2 User is offline   Hanoi5 

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Posted 2013-February-03, 06:32

If I open 1♦, I pass later. If I don´t open I'm tempted to bid 4NT (and I fall easily into temptation).

View Postwyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:

Also, he rates to not have a heart void when he leads the ♥3.


View Postrbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:

Besides playing for fun, most people also like to play bridge to win


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#3 User is offline   the_clown 

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Posted 2013-February-03, 07:16

I will pass and then X 4♠
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#4 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2013-February-03, 08:49

I open 1♦ and then pass. Opening 1♦ and then bidding again seems very unwise - we could easily go for 500 or more, and partner could have three trump tricks in 4♠.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#5 User is offline   rmnka447 

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Posted 2013-February-03, 23:06

I open 1 ♦ at MP -- it's a rule of 20 hand.

The second decision is a bit tactical. The danger is that you could easily go for -500 or more opposite a 420+ game. If I know the opponents and they're likely to take the push or are not likely to Dbl, then I'll bid 4 NT to try to find a landing spot. If the opponents are unknown to me or are strong players, I sit for 4 ♠.
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#6 User is offline   straube 

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Posted 2013-February-04, 00:06

I'll open 1D and then pass.
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#7 User is offline   Zelandakh 

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Posted 2013-February-04, 04:37

I am also opening 1♦ and passing.
(-: Zel :-)
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#8 User is offline   rhm 

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Posted 2013-February-04, 07:29

View Postgnasher, on 2013-February-03, 08:49, said:

I open 1♦ and then pass. Opening 1♦ and then bidding again seems very unwise - we could easily go for 500 or more, and partner could have three trump tricks in 4♠.

At Imps I would agree, though I am not particularly worried that partner has three trump tricks.

At MP only frequency matters.
Most of the time 4♠ will make and you will have a cheap save, most likely in a minor, and there is also the possibility that your side can make game after a likely spade lead.
In a few cases nobody can make anything or you will go for 500 or more.
Trouble with bidding 5♣ now (after having opened 1♦) is that partner will play you for a stronger hand.
He might raise or double 5♠.

I would pass but it is close at MP.

Rainer Herrmann
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#9 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2013-February-04, 07:36

Just out of curiosity, there are 4 posters who advocate for 1♦ then pass, why do you quote Andy?
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#10 User is offline   rhm 

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Posted 2013-February-04, 07:45

View PostFluffy, on 2013-February-04, 07:36, said:

Just out of curiosity, there are 4 posters who advocate for 1♦ then pass, why do you quote Andy?

Because I find Andy comments generally intriguing. :D

Rainer Herrmann
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#11 User is offline   Zelandakh 

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Posted 2013-February-04, 07:45

5 if you include Hanoi, who covered both options in his post.
(-: Zel :-)
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#12 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2013-February-04, 07:47

Agree with gnasher, 1♦ then pass for me. If it had gone 2♠-p-4♠ (with or without my initial pass) I would bid 4NT.

BTW I have everyone except the current poster of the year on my ignore list, sorry if someone had already said this.
... and I can prove it with my usual, flawless logic.
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#13 User is offline   MickyB 

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Posted 2013-February-04, 08:19

I'd pass then dbl playing my methods [short diamond, so no advantage in bidding for the lead]. Not sure about playing standard, might well be tempted to bid my AKQxx at my first turn even though I tend to be fairly solid with my 1m openings...I'd certainly pass on the next round now.
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#14 User is offline   straube 

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Posted 2013-February-04, 14:07

I think that most play 4S X as takeout and 4S (4N) as a 2-suited takeout.

I'm curious what's standard and what's best after 1D (2S) P (4S) because now you have 5C to show one of the two 2-suited possibilities (you've already shown diamonds). I would think...

dbl-values, penalty (after all, you could have the 18-19 balanced with
.....some defense, etc)
4N-3-suited takeout (likely void) or possibly 5H/6D
5C-minors
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#15 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2013-February-04, 17:07

View Poststraube, on 2013-February-04, 14:07, said:

I think that most play 4S X as takeout and 4S (4N) as a 2-suited takeout.

I'm curious what's standard and what's best after 1D (2S) P (4S) because now you have 5C to show one of the two 2-suited possibilities (you've already shown diamonds).

Double = takeout
4NT = 7-5 with clubs, or 5-6 with hearts
5♣ = natural, 5-5 or 6-5.

Quote

I would think...

dbl-values, penalty (after all, you could have the 18-19 balanced with
.....some defense, etc)
4N-3-suited takeout (likely void) or possibly 5H/6D
5C-minors

You need to be able to show a three-suiter without committing to the five-level, so as to retain the option of defending 4♠. Having to bid 4NT on those hands is very bad.

Showing a strong balanced hand is less important, because (a) it's a less common (b) it's less likely that you have a game game bonus to protect, and (c ) often you won't get rich from 4♠, because the suits are breaking, your spade honours are badly placed, and partner only gets to lead through dummy's strength once.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#16 User is offline   straube 

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Posted 2013-February-04, 17:35

View Postgnasher, on 2013-February-04, 17:07, said:

Double = takeout
4NT = 7-5 with clubs, or 5-6 with hearts
5♣ = natural, 5-5 or 6-5.


You need to be able to show a three-suiter without committing to the five-level, so as to retain the option of defending 4♠. Having to bid 4NT on those hands is very bad.

Showing a strong balanced hand is less important, because (a) it's a less common (b) it's less likely that you have a game game bonus to protect, and (c ) often you won't get rich from 4♠, because the suits are breaking, your spade honours are badly placed, and partner only gets to lead through dummy's strength once.


That makes sense. Thanks
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#17 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2013-February-04, 18:08

View PostFluffy, on 2013-February-04, 07:36, said:

Just out of curiosity, there are 4 posters who advocate for 1♦ then pass, why do you quote Andy?

Because, of the ones who provided any accompanying logic, his was the most cogent?

BTW: I am not often persuaded by the "rule of" arguments, and at my age I can't remember all the numbers following "rule of", anyway.

I do remember rule number 9 on NCIS, though. Always carry a knife. (Or is it Don't remarry the same woman?)
"Bidding Spades to show spades can work well." (Kenberg)
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#18 User is offline   bigbenvic 

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Posted 2013-February-04, 20:53

View PostFluffy, on 2013-February-03, 04:21, said:

MPs, nobody vul

♠-
♥1094
♦AKQ83
♣J7632


you are dealer, you can open 1♦ or pass, it will go

??-(2♠)-pass-(4♠)
??


I will pass first time, I'd consider opening a wk minors but the concentration of values is too rich.
I would pass again as partner may not have much and -420 is better than 500 or 800 which seems possible.

If I knew my opponents and thought that they were 50% chance to bid 5♠ then I'd bid on but against randoms I'll pass.
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