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lead directing or 2nd suit?

#1 User is offline   jillybean 

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Posted 2013-January-16, 00:30

1M (P) LR (3OM)
4m ?

Partner makes a limit raise in your major and the opponents interfere with 3OM
Is it better to play 4m as a second suit to help partners decision to bid on after 4,5
or to play it as lead directing?
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#2 User is offline   mikeh 

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Posted 2013-January-16, 00:50

View Postjillybean, on 2013-January-16, 00:30, said:

1M (P) LR (3OM)
4m ?

Partner makes a limit raise in your major and the opponents interfere with 3OM
Is it better to play 4m as a second suit to help partners decision to bid on after 4,5
or to play it as lead directing?

Opener is going to be on lead, so even if one thought lead-directing was more important than showing a side suit (and I don't), we don't need a lead director.
'one of the great markers of the advance of human kindness is the howls you will hear from the Men of God' Johann Hari
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#3 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2013-January-16, 01:01

Suit as I am leading.
"The King of Hearts a broadsword bears, the Queen of Hearts a rose." W. H. Auden.
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#4 User is offline   jillybean 

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Posted 2013-January-16, 08:11

Ooops, I got that wrong.

1M (2oM) 3oM (P)
4m

LD or 2nd suit, or cue perhaps?
"And no matter what methods you play, it is essential, for anyone aspiring to learn to be a good player, to learn the importance of bidding shape properly." MikeH
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#5 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2013-January-16, 08:22

This auction looks like we will most likely be playing ourselves. So I would say that it is whatever slam try we would play in the uncontested auction (cue, natural?).

If RHO had raised so that the chance that we end up defending is bigger, I would say that it is primarily aimed at identifying a double fit so that partner can decide whether to compete to the 5-level. Partner will probably lead that suit often as it will be a good suit but it won't always be our intention to have that suit led - we might be happy with a lead in our first suit also.
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#6 User is offline   TWO4BRIDGE 

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Posted 2013-January-16, 08:26

4m = Ctrl cue
Don Stenmark
TWOferBRIDGE
"imo by far in bridge the least understood concept is how to bid over a jump-shift
( 1M-1NT!-3m-?? )." ....Justin Lall

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#7 User is offline   kenberg 

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Posted 2013-January-16, 08:30

Oops. Too late. Reply pre-empted by others while I was typing.

There is still a lot of difference between 1-(2)-3 -(P) and 1-(2)-3-(P). But it seems unlikely to me that in either case opponents will be competing further if opener bids game. This seems especially clear in the first case. Second hand made a pre-emptive bid, third had forced to the four level, fourth hand neither doubled 3 nor bid 4. Surely 4m by opener is a slam try. It may be slightly less certain in the second case but still it seems unlikely that a player who passes 3 in fourth position will suddenly decide to come in with 5 if opener bids 4. In either case I would assume that 4m is a slam try of some sort, first or second round control and extras.
Ken
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#8 User is offline   Zelandakh 

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Posted 2013-January-25, 09:55

After 1 - (2) - 3 - (P),

3 = min
3NT = choose one: a) choice of game, or b) Frivolous/Serious
4 = choose one: a) control cue; or b) natural slam try (second suit)
4 = choose one: a) control cue; or b) shortage
(-: Zel :-)
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#9 User is offline   lycier 

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Posted 2013-January-25, 19:57

After cuebid 3 showing fit, the opener rebid at 4-level showed a suit control,slammish with extra values .Because we have fond trump fit,what else for others?
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