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Wondering if the 4D bid was more then a 4D bid

#1 User is offline   Steve Den 

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Posted 2012-November-02, 18:02

Had this today
W N E S
1D P 2C P
2N P 3C P
3N P 4D P
P P
W,N,S were beginner and E was advance
Question is the 4D just rebidding West first bid or was he asking aces or slam or something else? East left after this bid so was not able to ask. I was not West.

Thanks

This post has been edited by Steve Den: 2012-November-02, 20:49

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#2 User is offline   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2012-November-02, 18:44

It's whatever you've agreed it is, but one thing I do know is that it's forcing. You don't remove 3N to 4m non forcing in auctions like this.

I'd suggest it's a good 3 card diamond holding and putting diamonds in the frame for a slam, but may depend on system being played.
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#3 User is offline   Bbradley62 

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Posted 2012-November-02, 19:05

East's profile says: "biggener play for funn". Not advanced.
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#4 User is offline   EricK 

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Posted 2012-November-03, 03:59

Bridge logic says that 4 must be forcing (whatever else it means). East can not know that 3NT is not making and 4 will score better - which would be the only conceivable reason for taking out a game into a part-score. As to what it does mean, that rather depends on what the rest of the auction has shown. In many natural systems, both players have limited their hands - West by the 2NT rebid, East by the 3 rebid. In such a case, 4 probably means that East has misbid - either on this round or a previous one! However, if the auction was GF by agreement (eg because 2 response is played as GF bid, or the 2NT rebid shows extras), then I imagine East is showing 3 card support and some sort of slam potential.
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