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Wondering if the 4D bid was more then a 4D bid

#1 User is offline   Steve Den 

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Posted 2012-November-02, 18:02

Had this today
W N E S
1D P 2C P
2N P 3C P
3N P 4D P
P P
W,N,S were beginner and E was advance
Question is the 4D just rebidding West first ♦ bid or was he asking aces or slam or something else? East left after this bid so was not able to ask. I was not West.

Thanks

This post has been edited by Steve Den: 2012-November-02, 20:49

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#2 User is offline   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2012-November-02, 18:44

It's whatever you've agreed it is, but one thing I do know is that it's forcing. You don't remove 3N to 4m non forcing in auctions like this.

I'd suggest it's a good 3 card diamond holding and putting diamonds in the frame for a slam, but may depend on system being played.
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#3 User is offline   Bbradley62 

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Posted 2012-November-02, 19:05

East's profile says: "biggener play for funn". Not advanced.
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#4 User is offline   EricK 

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Posted 2012-November-03, 03:59

Bridge logic says that 4♦ must be forcing (whatever else it means). East can not know that 3NT is not making and 4♦ will score better - which would be the only conceivable reason for taking out a game into a part-score. As to what it does mean, that rather depends on what the rest of the auction has shown. In many natural systems, both players have limited their hands - West by the 2NT rebid, East by the 3♣ rebid. In such a case, 4♦ probably means that East has misbid - either on this round or a previous one! However, if the auction was GF by agreement (eg because 2♣ response is played as GF bid, or the 2NT rebid shows extras), then I imagine East is showing 3 card ♦ support and some sort of slam potential.
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