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Texas...mild

#1 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2012-August-18, 01:26

For this thread please assume you play texas:

that means you can make a mild slam try:


what does your mild slam try look like?
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#2 User is offline   manudude03 

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Posted 2012-August-18, 03:40

AKJxxx AQx xx xx for me.
Wayne Somerville
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#3 User is offline   inquiry 

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Posted 2012-August-18, 09:12

This is no way is an endorsement of any of the following hands. These were bid 1n-jacoby-simple accept-4 level bid- slam bid by 1nt opener in one bbo database. I don't know if they were playing texas or not, nor did i vet the hands to make sure the bid wasn't stupid. I just grabbed them from a bridgebrowser database (had to use jacoby, had to not super accept, had to jump to game by responder and had to end up in slam).

Perhaps can discuss among ourselves, which, if any would be right for such a bidding.
  • 8 AQ5432 KQ9 976
  • AT3 AQ9542 J2 43
  • 8 JT9542 AK6 T65
  • KT97 AK8654 Q 75
  • 62 KJT863 94 J93
  • J87543 T932 A97
  • T5 KQJ742 T43 Q9
  • A3 KQJ862 A7 543
  • 5 AK9753 9765 T2
  • J53 AKQJ86 J6 AT
  • KT J87632 97 KQ8
  • A J98653 QJ86 K4
  • QT8543 AT965 J T
  • AQ8652 J85 85 AK
  • QJT542 KQJT6 98
  • AK96543 K32 J 83
  • AQ976532 4 T7 K3
  • KQ98432 5 K82 76
  • QJ8653 J63 Q32 K
  • KJT963 K62 Q3 T6
  • AJ9754 72 KQJT T
  • AQ8542 96 J QT54
  • KQ9642 J 84 Q974
  • AKQT743 2 86 Q76
  • JT6542 AJ9 AJ K9
  • AK7654 J6 AQJ 62

--Ben--

#4 User is offline   lalldonn 

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Posted 2012-August-18, 11:17

I've always considered "mild slam try" a misnomer for this auction. It's the only slam invitation available on hands with a 6+ major and no shortness, so there is nothing "mild" about it, it's just "slam try".

I would say, assuming you are some 6322, it's on average a 14 point hand, although that can certainly vary. A 15 point hand might be Qx KQxxxx AK Jxx, and a 13 point hand might be xx KQJxxx Axx Kx. You don't need as much in high cards as you might think since the hand is rightsided, the lead is blind, and you often have 9+ trumps which partner will be aware of when he has to decide.
"What's the big rebid problem? After 1♦ - 1♠, I can rebid 1NT, 2♠, or 2♦."
- billw55
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#5 User is offline   awm 

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Posted 2012-August-18, 12:29

I wouldn't bid this way holding a singleton or void. Knowing the shortness is a huge point in slam bidding, so if I have any aspirations beyond game I'd want to splinter.

This seems to disqualify many of Ben's examples from BBO: 1,3,4,6,9,12,13,15,16,17,18,19,21,22,23,24

Of his remaining examples, the following are obviously too weak (probably people who don't play this sequence as a slam try): 5,7,11,20.

The remaining examples are: 2,8,10,14,25,26.

2.AT3 AQ9542 J2 43
8.A3 KQJ862 A7 543
10.J53 AKQJ86 J6 AT
14.AQ8652 J85 85 AK
25.JT6542 AJ9 AJ K9
26.AK7654 J6 AQJ 62

I think 2 is on the weak side; it would take a near perfecto for slam to make (doubleton spade, heart fit, max with good controls). I'd just sign off on that one.
Arguably 10 is too strong; you might want to start a cuebid auction but without methods for that, blasting slam seems better than just making a try.
The others seem reasonable to me, although I'd bid 25 differently (transfer then 3NT, then rkc if partner corrects to spades) because of the weak trump suit.
Adam W. Meyerson
a.k.a. Appeal Without Merit
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#6 User is offline   MrAce 

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Posted 2012-August-18, 14:31

I also don't understand the "mild slam" concept, never did. To me it is slam try as Josh said very well. I also agree with almost everything Awm said.
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#7 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2012-August-20, 05:43

Josh, are you seriously saying that in your partnership with Roger this is your only slam try? I find that hard to believe.

I think hand 26 is too strong for 1NT - 2H - 2S - 3NT Adam. I would guess that if partner has a maximum with a doubleton spade then you'll often have a slam.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#8 User is offline   lalldonn 

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Posted 2012-August-20, 09:51

View Posthan, on 2012-August-20, 05:43, said:

Josh, are you seriously saying that in your partnership with Roger this is your only slam try? I find that hard to believe.

Holding a 6+ suit without shortness, yes. Why is it hard to believe that we play what over 99% of American partnerships play? We do have re-transfers on the list of things to add in the future but we have much higher priorities first.
"What's the big rebid problem? After 1♦ - 1♠, I can rebid 1NT, 2♠, or 2♦."
- billw55
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#9 User is offline   lalldonn 

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Posted 2012-August-20, 09:56

wth forums keeps doing this. i guess it's user malfunction
"What's the big rebid problem? After 1♦ - 1♠, I can rebid 1NT, 2♠, or 2♦."
- billw55
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#10 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2012-August-20, 22:37

ty all for your posts


all posts helpful.
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#11 User is offline   lowerline 

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Posted 2012-August-21, 02:14

View Postmike777, on 2012-August-18, 01:26, said:

For this thread please assume you play texas:

that means you can make a mild slam try:


what does your mild slam try look like?


All these sequences show a 6crd heart suit:

1. 1nt-2-2-4
2. 1nt-2-2-jump to show splinter
3. 1nt-4-4-pass
4. 1nt-4-4-4nt (RKB)

1 = slam-interest without shortness
2 = slam-interest with shortness
3 = no slam-interest
4 = plan to bid slam with enough keycards

Steven
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#12 User is offline   Zelandakh 

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Posted 2012-September-05, 05:27

View Postlalldonn, on 2012-August-18, 11:17, said:

I've always considered "mild slam try" a misnomer for this auction. It's the only slam invitation available on hands with a 6+ major and no shortness, so there is nothing "mild" about it, it's just "slam try".

Surely this depends on other parts of your system? The idea of a mild slam try came from the days where it was normal to play that 1NT - 3M was a natural slam hand. Thus 1NT - 2R; 2M - 4M was available for something else. Even if you play that 1NT - 3M is something else, it is still easily possible to add a stronger slam try in the major somewhere else. For example I play 1NT - 2; 2 - 2 as a hand that would bid 2NT/4NT in standard, or clubs, or a strong one-suited slam hand. Similarly 1NT - 2; 2 - 3 is either diamonds or a strong one-suited slam hand. I am actually surprised to hear that you do not have a sequence for a stronger slam try in your system - I would have expected this to be normal at your level. Low priority, sure; but are there not enough off-the-shelf methods including this?

Anyway, I would say a mild slam try is a hand that is too weak to insist on slam if partner shows serious interest over the stronger slam try but strong enough for slam to be there if partner has prime cards. In other words, it allows us to divide Opener's slam suitability up into 3 ranges (non-serious, serious, super-serious if you like) instead of only 2. One thing I am a strong believer in is that the strong slam hand sequence should allow us to initiate a cue auction, much in line with the comments Adam made for Hand 10. I would much sooner go back to playing 1NT - 3M as natural and slammy than give this up.
(-: Zel :-)
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