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A fine line

#21 User is offline   dake50 

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Posted 2012-June-19, 07:31

4NT = Invitational to slam, 5(332). Asks "Are you good in context?"
So, are you?
***
What would 4C,4D,4H then some rebid mean? Partner didn't do any
of those.
Is 'yellow rose of Texas' (Texas transfer and rebid to slam try)
ON? So partner could have done that and his rebid now shows
what to evaluate as golden.
This 'in context' invite must be very distinct as no other
try was chosen.
I go 6NT. Mostly to keep my reputation for bidding 120% of slams.
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#22 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2012-June-19, 08:01

View Postdake50, on 2012-June-19, 07:31, said:

What would 4C,4D,4H then some rebid mean?

A different hand. This is responder's only way to show 5332 and doubt about whether to bid slam.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#23 User is offline   TWO4BRIDGE 

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Posted 2012-June-19, 09:57

Opener:
64 KQ6 AK87 KQ102

Responder:
AKJxx A109 Q10x Jx

So, is gnasher's method better than plain old:

1NT - 2H!
2S - 4NT! ( Quant )
Don Stenmark
TWOferBRIDGE
"imo by far in bridge the least understood concept is how to bid over a jump-shift
( 1M-1NT!-3m-?? )." ....Justin Lall

" Did someone mention relays? " .... Zelandakh

K-Rex to Mikeh : " Sometimes you drive me nuts " .
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#24 User is offline   cherdano 

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Posted 2012-June-19, 10:07

View PostTWO4BRIDGE, on 2012-June-19, 09:57, said:

So, is gnasher's method better than plain old:

1NT - 2H!
2S - 4NT! ( Quant )


What kind of comment is that? Obviously Andy's methods are better, his responder gets to invite slam after opener has described a maximum strong 1NT hand with 2 spades. In your hand reponsder gets to invite slam after opener has described a strong 1NT.
The easiest way to count losers is to line up the people who talk about loser count, and count them. -Kieran Dyke
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#25 User is offline   JLOGIC 

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Posted 2012-June-19, 11:43

View Postcherdano, on 2012-June-19, 10:07, said:

What kind of comment is that? Obviously Andy's methods are better, his responder gets to invite slam after opener has described a maximum strong 1NT hand with 2 spades. In your hand reponsder gets to invite slam after opener has described a strong 1NT.


Yeah but normal methods get you there easily and gnashers method kept some people out and slam was quite good, so how can gnashers method be better???????????????
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#26 User is offline   FrancesHinden 

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Posted 2012-June-19, 13:39

Opposite a maximum strong NT responder is very close to a slam drive anyway; give responder the S10 instead of the H10 and I think he'd just bid slam opposite a max.
I dunno, as others have said the CJ (rather than the HJ, say) makes a big difference to the number of tricks available.
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#27 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2012-June-20, 04:37

View PostJLOGIC, on 2012-June-19, 01:43, said:

Anyone wanna simulate partner having a 5(332) 15 and not 4 of the top 5 spades opposite our hand and see how often slam makes just for fun?


Double dummy 6NT makes 70% of the time.

Not sure what that means, double dummy slams tend to make more often than real life slams.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#28 User is offline   gszes 

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Posted 2012-June-20, 14:38

If p has used this sequence properly-the worst case scenario is your P has K and opps have AQ.
Your hand is 17 but has no JACKS and your minor suit length is a plus in a hand where p appears
to have no strong interest in the majors. small slams around 32 balanced power not normally that
hard to make if your side has no jacks. Squeezes have a tendency to show up quite regularly on hands
where the minors dont split 33.

Splitting hairs maybe but IMO go for it. If possible I would bid 5n showing both minors in case
we can more safely try 6 of a minor.
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