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AtB 'You passed my cuebid'

#1 User is offline   Jinksy 

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Posted 2012-April-05, 08:38

AKQxx K KTx KJxx

opposite

xx xxxx AQJxx xx

The bidding goes PPP to the N hand, then (unopposed) 1S 1N / 3C 3D / 3S 4D PPP

We were playing a basic Acol-based system.

North said that S had shown a hand with a weak 2 not pure enough for a second seat preempt, and wanted to get out of the auction.
South said that if his suit wasn't worth pushing for at the 2 level, it wasn't worth pushing for at the 4 level, and that 4D was therefore a cue agreeing Ss.

N said that 3S had just shown extra suit quality/no better bid.
S said that with interest in further discussion about denomination, N could have bid 3H.
N said that this would show a better H fragment than he had.

I submit our dispute to the BBO gods ;)
The "4 is a transfer to 4" award goes to Jinksy - PhilKing
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#2 User is offline   ahydra 

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Posted 2012-April-05, 08:50

3S looks fine. 4D is silly (why not 3NT - despite the lack of heart stop, we could hope partner has one in his 18+ hand, or that he has something like J10 if that top spot is actually the 9 or 8). Passing 4D is silly in a GF auction, particularly with KTx support opposite what should be a 6-card suit.

As for cuebidding, trying for a slam on South's hand is surely very ambitious. A perfect minimum might be AKQJx A xxx Axxx but that's less than 30% (3-2 trump break with King onside and spades no worse than 4-2).

So I'm blaming South 95% and North 5%.

ahydra
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#3 User is offline   ArtK78 

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Posted 2012-April-05, 08:53

I am curious. What hand could North hold that will produce a slam opposite the South hand and open the bidding 1?

I think that South is dreaming if he thinks that his hand is good enough to try for a spade slam on this auction. He should just bid 4. Quite frankly, 4 is no picnic on a heart lead. Odds are that you will go down - possibly several tricks. So 4 may be the winning spot. 5 has play, but it could easily fail.

So, why are we being asked to assign the blame here? Maybe spades were 3-3 and all is well in a spade contract (you only need 3-3 spades and a successful club guess to make 4). In that case, I blame the fact that the spades were 3-3 and the clubs were guessable.

There were some questionable decisions in the auction, but the final spot may be the best available contract.
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#4 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2012-April-05, 09:01

South should bid 4. North should not pass a partscore bid in a GF situation.
The world would be such a happy place, if only everyone played Acol :) --- TramTicket
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#5 User is offline   Jinksy 

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Posted 2012-April-05, 09:09

3N surely the best spot? Ideally by N, though given S's need for a 1N response that's surely a pipe dream. But even by S, you seem to have a 50-50 chance of making conditonal on a H lead.
The "4 is a transfer to 4" award goes to Jinksy - PhilKing
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#6 User is offline   billw55 

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Posted 2012-April-05, 09:11

View Postahydra, on 2012-April-05, 08:50, said:

3S looks fine. 4D is silly (why not 3NT - despite the lack of heart stop, we could hope partner has one in his 18+ hand, or that he has something like J10 if that top spot is actually the 9 or 8). Passing 4D is silly in a GF auction, particularly with KTx support opposite what should be a 6-card suit.

As for cuebidding, trying for a slam on South's hand is surely very ambitious. A perfect minimum might be AKQJx A xxx Axxx but that's less than 30% (3-2 trump break with King onside and spades no worse than 4-2).

So I'm blaming South 95% and North 5%.

ahydra

While I agree there is some blame for both, dropping a GF auction in 4 takes top billing IMO. Certainly more than 5%.
Life is long and beautiful, if bad things happen, good things will follow.
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#7 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2012-April-05, 09:18

View PostArtK78, on 2012-April-05, 08:53, said:

Maybe spades were 3-3 and all is well in a spade contract (you only need 3-3 spades and a successful club guess to make 4). In that case, I blame the fact that the spades were 3-3 and the clubs were guessable.


If spades are 3-3 we have ten tricks unless they get a club ruff before we get in. Otherwise, clubs don't matter.
"Bidding Spades to show spades can work well." (Kenberg)
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#8 User is offline   mikeh 

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Posted 2012-April-05, 09:39

Nobody so far seems concerned about the 3 call.

I think we need to know a little bit more about any agreements in place re the 3 call.

It might have been a noise, showing values there and no heart stopper, or it might have been natural....one can't tell just from looking at the hand, since the hand fits both meanings.

If 3 was intended to be natural, as N eventually took it to be, then surely N should raise diamonds rather than rebid spades. From N's p.o.v., since he chose to bid 3 and that, effectively, eliminates 3N and invites 4, he should keep diamonds in the picture.....partner won't play him for more diamonds than this if he raises to 4.

Picture S with x xxxx QJxxxx Ax: unless this systemically is a 2 opener.....and many would say it isn't because of some combination of the suit strength and the heart length, then 3 invites disaster, since it invites a raise on a stiff. How else would we bid a monster 6=3=1=3 just under a 2 opening, or a good 6=4 blacks with good spades?

Even if 3 were a noise or ambiguous, 4 remains clear if N is unwilling to bid 3N. S isn't bidding 3N over 3, and N has committed to game, so it's not as if 3 is passable. I should clarify: if S has hearts stopped, such that he will bid 3N over 3, then his 3 bid must show real, long diamonds, and interest in playing in that suit, else he should bid 3N. And if S has that hand (and didn't open), then 5 rates to be a fair contract.

As for the 4 call, it was a gross error...this S hand isn't good enough to try for slam.

As for the pass, regardless of what 4 was taken to mean, passing was a violation of partnership discipline......you cannot force to game and then pass below game.

So I think N made two blunders to S's one, and that makes N mostly at fault.
'one of the great markers of the advance of human kindness is the howls you will hear from the Men of God' Johann Hari
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#9 User is offline   ArtK78 

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Posted 2012-April-05, 09:41

View Postaguahombre, on 2012-April-05, 09:18, said:

If spades are 3-3 we have ten tricks unless they get a club ruff before we get in. Otherwise, clubs don't matter.

And if spades are not 3-3 you have virtually no play for 10 tricks.

As for those advocating a 3NT contract, good luck with that. You are off a minimum of 5 tricks off the top. If you avoid a heart lead, you need 3-3 spades (in which case you have 10 tricks). The most promising route to success is if you can score the K. I have seen worse.

I find this whole thread to be amusing. We are asked to assign the blame in reaching a contract which may be a double-dummy perfect contract. Sure, there are some highly questionable calls, as others have pointed out. But if we are resuling, I think the final contract is fine.
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#10 User is offline   Jinksy 

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Posted 2012-April-05, 09:51

View Postmikeh, on 2012-April-05, 09:39, said:

Nobody so far seems concerned about the 3 call.

I think we need to know a little bit more about any agreements in place re the 3 call.


Well yes, that was part of the dispute. The two of us rarely play together, so we don't have any agreements.
The "4 is a transfer to 4" award goes to Jinksy - PhilKing
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#11 User is offline   mikeh 

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Posted 2012-April-05, 09:54

View PostJinksy, on 2012-April-05, 09:51, said:

Well yes, that was part of the dispute. The two of us rarely play together, so we don't have any agreements.

Bear in mind that I also suggested that N should raise 3 to 4 regardless of what it meant, and I gave my reasoning. So while I sympathize with anyone involved in auctions where the partners are in murky waters, I still maintain that 3 was an error, and (imo) a serious one.
'one of the great markers of the advance of human kindness is the howls you will hear from the Men of God' Johann Hari
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#12 User is offline   lalldonn 

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Posted 2012-April-05, 10:32

Most people would not agree, but I strongly feel 3 is wrong and 2 is enough.
"What's the big rebid problem? After 1♦ - 1♠, I can rebid 1NT, 2♠, or 2♦."
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#13 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2012-April-05, 10:59

sidenote as a passed hand I would think about bidding 2d at least pard will know where my values are.


He sees I did not open 1 or 2d I passed.
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#14 User is offline   mikeh 

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Posted 2012-April-05, 11:00

View Postlalldonn, on 2012-April-05, 10:32, said:

Most people would not agree, but I strongly feel 3 is wrong and 2 is enough.

I didn't post on that question, but certainly had reservations about 3. I think it is very much a point-counter's bid, but, at the same time, very few players could bring themselves to bid 2. Actually, my view is that this is closer to a 2N rebid than 2, and I think that's the call I would have made at the table.

Having said that, I don't think that many forum posters, or real life players, would see 3 as such a mistake that it becomes part of the ATB process.
'one of the great markers of the advance of human kindness is the howls you will hear from the Men of God' Johann Hari
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#15 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2012-April-10, 08:54

Simple rule - we dont play 4m, unless we are 100% sure, that 3NT and 5m
does not make, even with a miracle ... and since we never can be sure,
we wont play 4m.

In the end, 4m needs to play 2 tricks better than 3S, and whoever said,
that 4D showed a weak hand with long diamonds, should ask himself, how
such a suit would look like.

We can discuss, if 4D is a cue or a choice of game bid, given the limited
nature of both hands choice of games makes more sense, but 4m is still
forcing.

And as a final comment 3C did set up a GF sequence, I just ovrlooked this,
I took it, that opener did bid 3S direct.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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