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2/1, What do you think this undiscussed sequence should be?

Poll: 1S-2H, 2N-4D (42 member(s) have cast votes)

The leap to 4D should be...

  1. An auto splinter, showing a self sufficient heart suit and short diamonds (24 votes [57.14%])

    Percentage of vote: 57.14%

  2. A splinter showing a source of tricks in hearts and spade support (11 votes [26.19%])

    Percentage of vote: 26.19%

  3. A picture bid, showing at least 6-5 in the reds with slam aspirations (2 votes [4.76%])

    Percentage of vote: 4.76%

  4. Something else which I will explain below (2 votes [4.76%])

    Percentage of vote: 4.76%

  5. I have no frickin' clue. (3 votes [7.14%])

    Percentage of vote: 7.14%

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#21 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2011-August-26, 01:33

View Postgnasher, on 2011-August-25, 11:43, said:

My first thought was that it was obviously an autosplinter for hearts.


This was my first thought as well. However on reading Justin's post, I agree that his interpretation makes more sense.
"The King of Hearts a broadsword bears, the Queen of Hearts a rose." W. H. Auden.
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#22 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2011-August-26, 04:24

View Postcherdano, on 2011-August-25, 21:05, said:

I am sure someone from Europe would post that it obviously shows 15-17 :)
In a style where you always open 1NT when in range with a 5-card major, I thought it's normal that 2NT in the auction above is 2-way, either 12-14 or 18-19; the latter will make another move towards slam later.


The rebid

1M 2x
2NT

has many standard meanings. It's mostly system-based and it depends on your NT structure (obviously) but also on stuff like whether or not you open 1NT with 5-card majors.

In sayc I believe it means good 13-14. With 12-13 bad you rebid 2M instead.
In SEF (french standard) it's 15-17. With 12-14 you rebid 2M.
In 2/1 it's 12-14 or 18-19. With 15-17 you rebid 3NT.
In ACOL I believe it's 15-19. With 12-14 you open 1NT.

I might be slightly off in the above, since I usually brew my own systems and don't keep up with the latest doctrinal developments :)
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#23 User is offline   Zelandakh 

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Posted 2011-August-26, 06:11

View Postwhereagles, on 2011-August-26, 04:24, said:

The rebid

1M 2x
2NT

has many standard meanings.In ACOL I believe it's 15-19. With 12-14 you open 1NT.


In Acol it is 15-16 and non-forcing. If you choose to bump up your 2/1 strength then you can play it as GF, commonly either 15-17 or 15-19. However this is NOT standard Acol.
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#24 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2011-August-26, 06:50

assuming 2NT shows 2+ hearts, this would show for me the same as 1♥-1♠-1NT-4♦ and 1♥-1♠-2NT-4♦ wich is autosplinter in my case.
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#25 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2011-August-26, 07:28

I thought 1♠ - 2♥ - 2N - 4♣ was the auction that people actually needed to discuss. 4♦ has to be a spade splinter.

Traditionally these 2nd round splinters have required four trump. However, there seems to be a trend of making an immediate forcing raise or even bidding 2♣ with most hands that contain four trump, so perhaps 4♦ should be sensibly used as a hand with three trump but some distinguishing feature like no control in the 4th suit.
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#26 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2011-August-26, 08:13

View PostZelandakh, on 2011-August-26, 06:11, said:

In Acol it is 15-16 and non-forcing. If you choose to bump up your 2/1 strength then you can play it as GF, commonly either 15-17 or 15-19. However this is NOT standard Acol.


That's why I said "I believe". I'm not sure :) Anyway, I did see an expert pair playing it as 15-19 and other recommending it, but perhaps they're mavericks.
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#27 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2011-August-26, 08:14

View PostPhil, on 2011-August-26, 07:28, said:

I thought 1♠ - 2♥ - 2N - 4♣ was the auction that people actually needed to discuss. 4♦ has to be a spade splinter.

Traditionally these 2nd round splinters have required four trump. However, there seems to be a trend of making an immediate forcing raise or even bidding 2♣ with most hands that contain four trump, so perhaps 4♦ should be sensibly used as a hand with three trump but some distinguishing feature like no control in the 4th suit.


I seem to remember something in Fred's lectures about delayed splinters being 3-carders...
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#28 User is offline   gordontd 

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Posted 2011-August-26, 09:24

View Postwhereagles, on 2011-August-26, 08:13, said:

That's why I said "I believe". I'm not sure :) Anyway, I did see an expert pair playing it as 15-19 and other recommending it, but perhaps they're mavericks.

I think it is pretty standard these last twenty years, though there are probably still some who play it the traditional 15-16.
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#29 User is offline   Lurpoa 

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Posted 2011-August-26, 15:14

View PostCSGibson, on 2011-August-25, 09:15, said:

We had the following auction playing 2/1 game forcing:


Despite being an experienced partnership, we had never discussed this auction. Agreements are that 2/1 is always game forcing, even with a suit rebid; no strong jump shifts; and we do not use an immediate Jacoby 2N or splinter if the most important feature of our hand is a source of tricks. 2N indicates a balanced hand with the outside suits stopped; 2♠ would be our default rebid.

What do you think 4♦ should mean? Is it obvious?



♥ ♥ ♥

I keep on repeating myself, yes ♥!
It is all you want, but you must agree with partner.

You cannot trust that she thinks the same "should be" as you, without prior discussion.

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#30 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2011-August-26, 16:26

View PostPhil, on 2011-August-26, 07:28, said:

I thought 1♠ - 2♥ - 2N - 4♣ was the auction that people actually needed to discuss. 4♦ has to be a spade splinter.

If 4♦ is a splinter for spades, what other meaning might you assign to 4♣?
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#31 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2011-August-26, 21:01

View Postgnasher, on 2011-August-26, 16:26, said:

If 4♦ is a splinter for spades, what other meaning might you assign to 4♣?


Ger.....

No I can't even say it.
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